FPGEE Exam Questions | Question Bank

Welcome to the comprehensive FPGEE practice bank designed specifically for pharmacy students and foreign graduates. This page contains 200 high-yield questions covering Basic Biomedical Sciences, Pharmaceutical Sciences, Social/Behavioral/Administrative Sciences, and Clinical Sciences. Review these questions to test your knowledge, master the calculations, and prepare effectively for your certification exam. You can download the full question set as a PDF at the bottom of the page.

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1. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism by which severe liver disease alters the pharmacokinetics of high extraction ratio drugs?
  • A. Decreased plasma protein binding
  • B. Decreased hepatic blood flow
  • C. Decreased intrinsic clearance
  • D. Increased biliary excretion
Correct Answer: B
2. A patient presents with a defect in the gene encoding for the enzyme glucocerebrosidase. This defect results in the accumulation of glucocerebroside in the lysosome. Which disorder is described?
  • A. Tay-Sachs disease
  • B. Niemann-Pick disease
  • C. Gaucher disease
  • D. Fabry disease
Correct Answer: C
3. During the cardiac cycle, the "dichrotic notch" on the aortic pressure waveform represents which physiological event?
  • A. Opening of the mitral valve
  • B. Closure of the aortic valve
  • C. Opening of the aortic valve
  • D. Closure of the mitral valve
Correct Answer: B
4. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is the primary antibody found in mucosal secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk?
  • A. IgG
  • B. IgM
  • C. IgA
  • D. IgE
Correct Answer: C
5. In the context of bacterial genetics, the process by which a bacteriophage transfers DNA from one bacterial cell to another is known as:
  • A. Transformation
  • B. Transduction
  • C. Conjugation
  • D. Transposition
Correct Answer: B
6. Calculate the quantity of sodium chloride (NaCl) required to make 500 mL of a 2% (w/v) pilocarpine nitrate solution isotonic with tears. (Freezing point depression of 1% pilocarpine nitrate = 0.14°C; Freezing point depression of 1% NaCl = 0.576°C)
  • A. 1.25 g
  • B. 2.08 g
  • C. 3.40 g
  • D. 4.50 g
Correct Answer: B
7. Which of the following equations describes the relationship between the pH of a solution, the pKa of a weak acid, and the ratio of the concentration of the ionized form to the unionized form?
  • A. Noyes-Whitney Equation
  • B. Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation
  • C. Michaelis-Menten Equation
  • D. Hanes-Woolf Equation
Correct Answer: B
8. Which functional group is most susceptible to hydrolysis in an acidic aqueous environment?
  • A. Ester
  • B. Ether
  • C. Alkane
  • D. Ketone
Correct Answer: A
9. A drug has a biological half-life of 4 hours. If 100 mg is administered IV, approximately how much drug remains in the body after 12 hours?
  • A. 50 mg
  • B. 25 mg
  • C. 12.5 mg
  • D. 6.25 mg
Correct Answer: C
10. In the preparation of a parenteral product, "caking" of a suspension is most effectively prevented by:
  • A. Reducing the particle size to the nanometer range
  • B. Creating a flocculated system
  • C. Creating a deflocculated system
  • D. Increasing the viscosity significantly
Correct Answer: B
11. Which USP chapter provides enforceable standards for Non-Sterile Compounding?
  • A. USP 795
  • B. USP 797
  • C. USP 800
  • D. USP 825
Correct Answer: A
12. Magnesium stearate is commonly used in tablet manufacturing as a:
  • A. Diluent
  • B. Disintegrant
  • C. Lubricant
  • D. Binder
Correct Answer: C
13. A drug exhibits non-linear (zero-order) pharmacokinetics at therapeutic doses. This implies that:
  • A. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time.
  • B. The half-life is constant regardless of concentration.
  • C. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time.
  • D. The clearance is constant regardless of concentration.
Correct Answer: C
14. What is the primary role of a "glidant" in capsule formulation?
  • A. To enhance the breakup of the capsule shell
  • B. To improve the flow properties of the powder mix
  • C. To prevent moisture absorption
  • D. To act as a preservative
Correct Answer: B
15. Which medicinal chemistry modification would increase the lipophilicity of a drug molecule?
  • A. Adding a hydroxyl (-OH) group
  • B. Adding a carboxylic acid (-COOH) group
  • C. Replacing a methyl group with a chlorine atom
  • D. Ionizing the molecule
Correct Answer: C
16. Under the Waxman-Hatch Act, an "Orange Book" rating of "AB" indicates:
  • A. The drug is a new molecular entity.
  • B. The drug is considered bioequivalent to the reference listed drug (RLD).
  • C. The drug has potential bioequivalence problems.
  • D. The drug is a biosimilar product.
Correct Answer: B
17. Which study design allows for the calculation of an Odds Ratio (OR)?
  • A. Cross-sectional study
  • B. Cohort study
  • C. Case-control study
  • D. Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
Correct Answer: C
18. A pharmacist realizes they dispensed the wrong medication to a patient. According to the "Just Culture" model, how should this error be managed?
  • A. The pharmacist should be automatically terminated for negligence.
  • B. The error should be analyzed to identify system weaknesses, focusing on process improvement rather than individual blame.
  • C. The error should be ignored if the patient was not harmed.
  • D. The pharmacist should be fined by the pharmacy manager.
Correct Answer: B
19. Which part of Medicare covers outpatient prescription drugs?
  • A. Medicare Part A
  • B. Medicare Part B
  • C. Medicare Part C
  • D. Medicare Part D
Correct Answer: D
20. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) primarily protects:
  • A. The price of prescription drugs
  • B. The employment rights of pharmacists
  • C. The privacy and security of Protected Health Information (PHI)
  • D. The purity of compounded medications
Correct Answer: C
21. A "formulary" in a hospital setting is best defined as:
  • A. A list of all drugs approved by the FDA
  • B. A continually updated list of medications approved for use in the system.
  • C. A list of drugs that are covered by Medicaid only.
  • D. A reference book for compounding recipes.
Correct Answer: B
22. Which of the following is considered a "humanistic outcome" in pharmacoeconomic analysis?
  • A. Reduced hospitalization costs
  • B. Decreased blood pressure readings
  • C. Improved Quality of Life (QoL) or patient satisfaction
  • D. Reduced mortality rate
Correct Answer: C
23. A 65-year-old male on Warfarin presents with an INR of 8.5 and no evidence of bleeding. What is the most appropriate initial management?
  • A. Administer Vitamin K 10 mg IV push immediately.
  • B. Omit the next 1-2 doses of warfarin, monitor INR, and resume at a lower dose.
  • C. Transfuse Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP).
  • D. Continue current dose and recheck INR in 1 week.
Correct Answer: B
24. Which antidiabetic agent carries a "Black Box Warning" for the risk of thyroid C-cell tumors?
  • A. Metformin
  • B. Sitagliptin
  • C. Liraglutide
  • D. Glipizide
Correct Answer: C
25. A patient is prescribed Linezolid. Which concomitant medication would pose a significant risk for Serotonin Syndrome?
  • A. Lisinopril
  • B. Fluoxetine
  • C. Atorvastatin
  • D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: B
26. [Select All That Apply] Which of the following are potential adverse effects associated with chronic systemic corticosteroid use?
  • A. Hyperglycemia
  • B. Osteoporosis
  • C. Hyperkalemia
  • D. Moon face / Cushingoid appearance
  • E. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A, B, D
27. What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Syphilis in a pregnant patient who is allergic to penicillin?
  • A. Doxycycline
  • B. Levofloxacin
  • C. Desensitization and treatment with Penicillin G Benzathine
  • D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: C
28. Which laboratory value is most essential to monitor in a patient starting Clozapine therapy?
  • A. Serum Creatinine (SCr)
  • B. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
  • C. TSH
  • D. INR
Correct Answer: B
29. A patient with heart failure sees "yellow-green halos" around lights. This is a classic sign of toxicity for which medication?
  • A. Lisinopril
  • B. Furosemide
  • C. Digoxin
  • D. Carvedilol
Correct Answer: C
30. Which antiretroviral class does Efavirenz belong to?
  • A. Protease Inhibitor (PI)
  • B. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI)
  • C. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI)
  • D. Integrase Inhibitor (INSTI)
Correct Answer: C
31. Calculate Corrected Calcium: Total Calcium 7.8, Albumin 2.5.
  • A. 8.2
  • B. 9.0
  • C. 9.8
  • D. 10.5
Correct Answer: B
32. Which chemotherapeutic agent is associated with a high risk of cardiotoxicity (cardiomyopathy)?
  • A. Cisplatin
  • B. Doxorubicin
  • C. Vincristine
  • D. Bleomycin
Correct Answer: B
33. Mechanism of action of Ondansetron?
  • A. D2 antagonist
  • B. H1 antagonist
  • C. 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
  • D. NK-1 antagonist
Correct Answer: C
34. Critical counseling point for Alendronate?
  • A. Take with fatty meal
  • B. Lie down immediately
  • C. Take with plain water, remain upright 30 mins
  • D. Chew tablet
Correct Answer: C
35. Antidote for Acetaminophen overdose?
  • A. Naloxone
  • B. Flumazenil
  • C. N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
  • D. Deferoxamine
Correct Answer: C
36. Child (44 lbs) prescribed Amoxicillin 40mg/kg/day divided BID. Suspension is 400mg/5mL. mL per dose?
  • A. 2.5 mL
  • B. 5 mL
  • C. 7.5 mL
  • D. 10 mL
Correct Answer: B
37. Treatment for acute Gout in patient with Stage 4 CKD?
  • A. Naproxen
  • B. Colchicine
  • C. Prednisone
  • D. Probenecid
Correct Answer: C
38. In the CHA2DS2-VASc score, the letter 'D' represents:
  • A. Dyslipidemia
  • B. Diabetes Mellitus
  • C. Diastolic Dysfunction
  • D. Drug abuse
Correct Answer: B
39. Which enzyme is inhibited by Statins?
  • A. ACE
  • B. HMG-CoA Reductase
  • C. COX
  • D. Phosphodiesterase
Correct Answer: B
40. Which drug interaction increases Lithium levels causing toxicity?
  • A. Acetaminophen
  • B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
  • C. Amlodipine
  • D. Vitamin C
Correct Answer: B
41. Vitamin deficiency associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
  • A. Vitamin B1
  • B. Vitamin B3
  • C. Vitamin B9
  • D. Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: A
42. The "First Pass Effect" refers to:
  • A. Rapid excretion by kidneys
  • B. Metabolism by liver before systemic circulation
  • C. First dose administered
  • D. Skin absorption
Correct Answer: B
43. Federal agency regulating disposal of Controlled Substances?
  • A. FDA
  • B. DEA
  • C. OSHA
  • D. EPA
Correct Answer: B
44. Maximum volume safe for subcutaneous injection?
  • A. 0.1 mL
  • B. 2.0 mL
  • C. 5.0 mL
  • D. 10.0 mL
Correct Answer: B
45. Antagonist at the Benzodiazepine receptor?
  • A. Naloxone
  • B. Flumazenil
  • C. Protamine
  • D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B
46. Sildenafil is contraindicated with:
  • A. Alpha-blockers
  • B. Nitrates
  • C. Statins
  • D. SSRIs
Correct Answer: B
47. "Tachyphylaxis" is defined as:
  • A. Allergy
  • B. Rapidly developing tolerance
  • C. Slow accumulation
  • D. Arrhythmia
Correct Answer: B
48. Which insulin is "peakless" and long-acting?
  • A. Lispro
  • B. Glargine
  • C. Regular
  • D. NPH
Correct Answer: B
49. TPN requires 40 mEq KCl. Stock is 2 mEq/mL. How many mL?
  • A. 10 mL
  • B. 20 mL
  • C. 40 mL
  • D. 80 mL
Correct Answer: B
50. Herbal supplement for depression that induces CYP450?
  • A. Ginkgo
  • B. St. John's Wort
  • C. Saw Palmetto
  • D. Echinacea
Correct Answer: B
51. Which component of the bacterial cell wall is the target of Beta-Lactams?
  • A. 30S Ribosome
  • B. DNA Gyrase
  • C. Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs)
  • D. LPS
Correct Answer: C
52. Which creates a "High Anion Gap" Metabolic Acidosis?
  • A. Diarrhea
  • B. Methanol ingestion
  • C. RTA
  • D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: B
53. Hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary?
  • A. Prolactin
  • B. GH
  • C. Vasopressin (ADH)
  • D. ACTH
Correct Answer: C
54. Furosemide acts primarily on which section of the nephron?
  • A. PCT
  • B. Thick Ascending Limb of Loop of Henle
  • C. DCT
  • D. Collecting Duct
Correct Answer: B
55. Immediate precursor for Dopamine synthesis?
  • A. Tryptophan
  • B. Tyrosine
  • C. Glutamate
  • D. Histidine
Correct Answer: B
56. Calculate HLB of mixture: 40% Tween 80 (HLB 15) and 60% Span 80 (HLB 4.3).
  • A. 8.58
  • B. 9.65
  • C. 10.7
  • D. 12.1
Correct Answer: A
57. USP 797 Low-risk CSP refrigerated storage limit:
  • A. 48 hours
  • B. 14 days
  • C. 45 days
  • D. 9 days
Correct Answer: B
58. Rheology: Viscosity decreases with increasing shear rate.
  • A. Dilatant
  • B. Newtonian
  • C. Pseudoplastic
  • D. Plastic
Correct Answer: C
59. In First-Order Kinetics, the plot of ___ vs time is linear.
  • A. Concentration
  • B. Log of Concentration (ln C)
  • C. 1/C
  • D. C^2
Correct Answer: B
60. Mix 100g of 10% ointment with 200g of 5% ointment. Final strength?
  • A. 6.6%
  • B. 7.5%
  • C. 8.3%
  • D. 5.5%
Correct Answer: A
61. Excipient used as enteric coating polymer?
  • A. Lactose
  • B. Cellulose Acetate Phthalate (CAP)
  • C. Magnesium Stearate
  • D. Starch
Correct Answer: B
62. Sterilization for heat-labile solution?
  • A. Autoclave
  • B. Dry heat
  • C. Membrane Filtration (0.22 micron)
  • D. Gas
Correct Answer: C
63. "Syneresis" refers to:
  • A. Swelling
  • B. Expulsion of liquid from a gel upon standing
  • C. Breaking emulsion
  • D. Fusion
Correct Answer: B
64. Vd of 300 Liters suggests:
  • A. Confined to plasma
  • B. Protein bound
  • C. Highly lipophilic/tissue distributed
  • D. Large MW
Correct Answer: C
65. Radiation with highest penetrating power?
  • A. Alpha
  • B. Beta
  • C. Gamma
  • D. Positrons
Correct Answer: C
66. Phase IV clinical trial is:
  • A. First in human
  • B. Dose ranging
  • C. Efficacy
  • D. Post-marketing surveillance
Correct Answer: D
67. DEA form to order Schedule II drugs?
  • A. 224
  • B. 222
  • C. 41
  • D. 106
Correct Answer: B
68. Calculate Sensitivity: TP=80, FN=20.
  • A. 80%
  • B. 89%
  • C. 90%
  • D. 75%
Correct Answer: A
69. OBRA '90 mandated:
  • A. Safety caps
  • B. Tamper evidence
  • C. Counseling and DUR for Medicaid
  • D. Generics
Correct Answer: C
70. Class I Recall:
  • A. Unlikely harm
  • B. Reversible harm
  • C. Serious adverse health consequences or death
  • D. Label error
Correct Answer: C
71. Cost-Utility Analysis measures outcomes in:
  • A. Dollars
  • B. Natural units
  • C. QALYs
  • D. Cases prevented
Correct Answer: C
72. HIPAA request for records must be fulfilled within:
  • A. 24 hours
  • B. 10 days
  • C. 30 days
  • D. 60 days
Correct Answer: C
73. Treatment for Pyelonephritis in pregnant patient?
  • A. Ciprofloxacin
  • B. Doxycycline
  • C. Ceftriaxone
  • D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: C
74. MOA of Empagliflozin (Jardiance)?
  • A. Insulin sensitivity
  • B. DPP-4 inhibitor
  • C. SGLT2 inhibitor
  • D. Insulin secretagogue
Correct Answer: C
75. Patient develops HIT on Enoxaparin. Switch to:
  • A. Heparin
  • B. Warfarin
  • C. Argatroban
  • D. Phytonadione
Correct Answer: C
76. Treatment for opioid overdose?
  • A. Buprenorphine
  • B. Methadone
  • C. Naloxone
  • D. Naltrexone
Correct Answer: C
77. Calculate CrCl: 165 lbs, SCr 1.2, 60yo Male.
  • A. 52
  • B. 65
  • C. 69-70 mL/min
  • D. 85
Correct Answer: C
78. Beta-blocker with Alpha-1 blocking activity?
  • A. Metoprolol
  • B. Atenolol
  • C. Carvedilol
  • D. Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: C
79. Therapeutic range for Digoxin in Heart Failure?
  • A. 0.5 - 0.9 ng/mL
  • B. 1.0 - 2.0
  • C. 2.0 - 3.0
  • D. 10 - 20
Correct Answer: A
80. First-line systemic treatment for Candidal Esophagitis?
  • A. Nystatin
  • B. Fluconazole
  • C. Amphotericin B
  • D. Terbinafine
Correct Answer: B
81. Which bDMARD targets TNF-alpha?
  • A. Rituximab
  • B. Adalimumab
  • C. Anakinra
  • D. Tocilizumab
Correct Answer: B
82. Asthma symptoms >2 days/week but not daily. Classification?
  • A. Intermittent
  • B. Mild Persistent
  • C. Moderate Persistent
  • D. Severe Persistent
Correct Answer: B
83. Allele associated with Carbamazepine SJS in Asians?
  • A. HLA-B*5701
  • B. HLA-B*1502
  • C. HLA-B*5801
  • D. CYP2D6*4
Correct Answer: B
84. Lipid agent contraindicated in severe hypertriglyceridemia?
  • A. Fibrates
  • B. Niacin
  • C. Bile Acid Sequestrants
  • D. Omega-3
Correct Answer: C
85. Bevacizumab inhibits:
  • A. EGFR
  • B. VEGF
  • C. HER2
  • D. CD20
Correct Answer: B
86. Orange Book Code "BX":
  • A. Bioequivalent
  • B. Not bioequivalent / insufficient data
  • C. Topical
  • D. Injectable
Correct Answer: B
87. Formulation protecting drug from stomach acid?
  • A. Sublingual
  • B. Enteric-coated
  • C. Sustained-release
  • D. Elixir
Correct Answer: B
88. Pyrogens cause:
  • A. Precipitation
  • B. Fever
  • C. Hemolysis
  • D. Pain
Correct Answer: B
89. Sentinel Event:
  • A. Minor error
  • B. Unexpected death or serious injury
  • C. Fire drill
  • D. Promotion
Correct Answer: B
90. Example of Type I hypersensitivity?
  • A. Contact dermatitis
  • B. Anaphylaxis
  • C. Serum sickness
  • D. Hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer: B
91. Active drug in 100 mL of 1:1000 solution?
  • A. 1 mg
  • B. 10 mg
  • C. 100 mg
  • D. 1000 mg
Correct Answer: C
92. Vaccine contraindicated in immunocompromised (CD4 < 200)?
  • A. Influenza (shot)
  • B. MMR
  • C. Pneumococcal
  • D. Tdap
Correct Answer: B
93. Antidote for Iron toxicity?
  • A. Atropine
  • B. Deferoxamine
  • C. Dimercaprol
  • D. Penicillamine
Correct Answer: B
94. Dysgeusia is a side effect of:
  • A. Metformin
  • B. Lunesta (Eszopiclone)
  • C. Lisinopril
  • D. Aspirin
Correct Answer: B
95. Most abundant CYP enzyme (metabolizes 50% drugs)?
  • A. 1A2
  • B. 2C9
  • C. 2D6
  • D. 3A4
Correct Answer: D
96. Contraindicated in Sulfa allergy?
  • A. Amoxicillin
  • B. Bactrim
  • C. Azithromycin
  • D. Morphine
Correct Answer: B
97. Red Man Syndrome is associated with:
  • A. Vancomycin
  • B. Linezolid
  • C. Daptomycin
  • D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: A
98. Primary buffer system in blood?
  • A. Phosphate
  • B. Bicarbonate / Carbonic acid
  • C. Protein
  • D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B
99. Peripherally acting opioid antagonist for constipation?
  • A. Loperamide
  • B. Methylnaltrexone
  • C. Naloxone
  • D. Fentanyl
Correct Answer: B
100. Calculate BMI: 1.75m, 70kg.
  • A. 20.5
  • B. 22.9
  • C. 25.1
  • D. 28.4
Correct Answer: B
101. Final common pathway for oxidation in mitochondria?
  • A. Glycolysis
  • B. Gluconeogenesis
  • C. Citric Acid Cycle
  • D. PPP
Correct Answer: C
102. Cranial nerve for hearing/balance?
  • A. II
  • B. V
  • C. VIII
  • D. X
Correct Answer: C
103. Heinz bodies are associated with:
  • A. Iron deficiency
  • B. G6PD Deficiency
  • C. Sickle Cell
  • D. Pernicious Anemia
Correct Answer: B
104. Vitamin required for clotting factors II, VII, IX, X?
  • A. Vit A
  • B. Vit C
  • C. Vit E
  • D. Vit K
Correct Answer: D
105. Active Transport differs from Facilitated Diffusion by:
  • A. No carrier
  • B. Down gradient
  • C. Requires energy (ATP)
  • D. Water only
Correct Answer: C
106. Calculate F: Oral Dose 100 (AUC 20); IV Dose 50 (AUC 40).
  • A. 10%
  • B. 25%
  • C. 50%
  • D. 100%
Correct Answer: B
107. pH 4.0, pKa 5.0 (weak acid). Ratio Ionized:Unionized?
  • A. 100:1
  • B. 10:1
  • C. 1:1
  • D. 1:10
Correct Answer: D
108. USP chapter for Hazardous Drugs?
  • A. 795
  • B. 797
  • C. 800
  • D. 825
Correct Answer: C
109. "Capping" in tablets refers to:
  • A. Separation of top/bottom crown
  • B. Sticking
  • C. Unequal color
  • D. Hardness
Correct Answer: A
110. Zero-Order degradation. C0=100, k=2 mg/mL/mo. Conc after 10 months?
  • A. 98
  • B. 80
  • C. 20
  • D. 90
Correct Answer: B
111. Lipophilic surfactant for W/O emulsions?
  • A. SLS
  • B. Tween 80
  • C. Span 80
  • D. PEG
Correct Answer: C
112. Noyes-Whitney Equation describes:
  • A. Dissolution rate
  • B. Filtration
  • C. Binding
  • D. Stability
Correct Answer: A
113. Functional group in Sulfonylureas?
  • A. Thioether
  • B. Sulfonamide
  • C. Amine
  • D. Ester
Correct Answer: B
114. Cl = 10 L/hr, Css = 5 mg/L. Maint Rate?
  • A. 2
  • B. 5
  • C. 20
  • D. 50 mg/hr
Correct Answer: D
115. Liposome definition:
  • A. Solid microsphere
  • B. Phospholipid vesicle enclosing aqueous core
  • C. Matrix
  • D. Patch
Correct Answer: B
116. Sterilization LEAST suitable for oily solution?
  • A. Dry Heat
  • B. Membrane Filtration
  • C. Autoclave
  • D. Gamma
Correct Answer: B
117. Shelf-life (t90) for First-Order?
  • A. 0.105 / k
  • B. 0.693 / k
  • C. 1 / k
  • D. k * 0.9
Correct Answer: A
118. Modification for Beta-Lactamase resistance?
  • A. Bulky side group
  • B. Remove acid
  • C. Change chirality
  • D. Reduce ring
Correct Answer: A
119. 2% (w/v) Lidocaine contains:
  • A. 2 mg/100mL
  • B. 20 mg/100mL
  • C. 2 g/100mL
  • D. 20 g/100mL
Correct Answer: C
120. Polymorph generally most soluble?
  • A. Stable
  • B. Metastable
  • C. Amorphous
  • D. Hydrate
Correct Answer: C
121. Therapeutic Index (TI) calculation?
  • A. ED50/LD50
  • B. LD50/ED50
  • C. TD50*ED50
  • D. ED99/ED50
Correct Answer: B
122. Reagent for Endotoxin (LAL) test?
  • A. Karl Fischer
  • B. Limulus Amebocyte Lysate
  • C. Benedict's
  • D. Mayer's
Correct Answer: B
123. Act requiring child-resistant packaging?
  • A. Kefauver-Harris
  • B. PPPA
  • C. Durham-Humphrey
  • D. PDMA
Correct Answer: B
124. "Red Book" contains:
  • A. Interactions
  • B. Drug Pricing (AWP)
  • C. Bioequivalence
  • D. Compatibility
Correct Answer: B
125. MedGuide required for:
  • A. Antidepressants (SSRIs)
  • B. Antibiotics
  • C. Antihypertensives
  • D. Vitamins
Correct Answer: A
126. Inventory method to minimize holding costs (order when needed)?
  • A. JIT
  • B. EOQ
  • C. ABC
  • D. Perpetual
Correct Answer: A
127. NOT PHI under HIPAA?
  • A. Email
  • B. License plate
  • C. De-identified data
  • D. Photo
Correct Answer: C
128. Durham-Humphrey Amendment created:
  • A. FDA
  • B. Rx vs OTC classes
  • C. Efficacy proof
  • D. Supplements
Correct Answer: B
129. Refusal to fill based on beliefs?
  • A. Veracity
  • B. Pharmacovigilance
  • C. Conscience Clause
  • D. Non-maleficence
Correct Answer: C
130. "Subjective" in SOAP note:
  • A. Patient reported symptoms
  • B. Lab values
  • C. Assessment
  • D. Plan
Correct Answer: A
131. REMS purpose:
  • A. Cost
  • B. Ensure benefits outweigh risks
  • C. Generics
  • D. Phase I
Correct Answer: B
132. Accredits pharmacy residencies?
  • A. ACPE
  • B. ASHP
  • C. NABP
  • D. APhA
Correct Answer: B
133. 95% CI (-2, 10). Interpretation?
  • A. A better
  • B. B better
  • C. Not statistically significant
  • D. Flawed
Correct Answer: C
134. First-line for CAP in healthy outpatient?
  • A. Levofloxacin
  • B. Amoxicillin or Doxycycline
  • C. Pip-Tazo
  • D. Vanco
Correct Answer: B
135. Gout med contraindicated in PUD?
  • A. Colchicine
  • B. Indomethacin (NSAID)
  • C. Prednisolone
  • D. Steroid inj
Correct Answer: B
136. Antiepileptic with Michaelis-Menten kinetics?
  • A. Levetiracetam
  • B. Valproic Acid
  • C. Phenytoin
  • D. Gabapentin
Correct Answer: C
137. Contraindicated in T2DM with eGFR 25?
  • A. Insulin
  • B. Metformin
  • C. Glipizide
  • D. Repaglinide
Correct Answer: B
138. Prophylaxis of stroke in Sickle Cell?
  • A. Hydroxyurea
  • B. Warfarin
  • C. Aspirin
  • D. Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: A
139. Supplement with Isoniazid?
  • A. Vit B6 (Pyridoxine)
  • B. Vit B12
  • C. Folate
  • D. Iron
Correct Answer: A
140. Antidepressant causing Tyramine interaction?
  • A. SSRI
  • B. TCA
  • C. MAOI
  • D. SNRI
Correct Answer: C
141. Folic acid dose for childbearing age?
  • A. 400 mcg
  • B. 4 mg
  • C. 10 mg
  • D. 100 mcg
Correct Answer: A
142. Digoxin toxicity worsened by:
  • A. Hyperkalemia
  • B. Hypokalemia
  • C. Hypermagnesemia
  • D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B
143. Prodrug of Acyclovir?
  • A. Famciclovir
  • B. Valacyclovir
  • C. Ganciclovir
  • D. Valganciclovir
Correct Answer: B
144. Warfarin adjustment when starting Amiodarone?
  • A. Increase
  • B. Decrease by 30-50%
  • C. No change
  • D. Switch to Heparin
Correct Answer: B
145. Gray Baby Syndrome associated with:
  • A. Gentamicin
  • B. Tetracycline
  • C. Chloramphenicol
  • D. Sulfa
Correct Answer: C
146. Triad: Pinpoint pupils, resp depression, bradycardia.
  • A. Cocaine
  • B. Opioids
  • C. Anticholinergics
  • D. Amphetamines
Correct Answer: B
147. Direct Renin Inhibitor?
  • A. Lisinopril
  • B. Losartan
  • C. Aliskiren
  • D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: C
148. Calculate ANC: WBC 4000, Segs 40%, Bands 10%.
  • A. 1000
  • B. 1500
  • C. 2000
  • D. 2500
Correct Answer: C
149. Prophylaxis for Cluster Headaches?
  • A. Sumatriptan
  • B. Verapamil
  • C. Oxygen
  • D. Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: B
150. PDE-5 Inhibitor side effect (Hearing):
  • A. Sudden loss (Stop drug)
  • B. Unrelated
  • C. Overdose only
  • D. Treatable
Correct Answer: A
151. Cells secreting Intrinsic Factor?
  • A. Chief
  • B. Parietal
  • C. G-cells
  • D. Goblet
Correct Answer: B
152. Lagging strand DNA segments?
  • A. Introns
  • B. Exons
  • C. Okazaki fragments
  • D. Transposons
Correct Answer: C
153. First antibody in primary response?
  • A. IgG
  • B. IgM
  • C. IgA
  • D. IgD
Correct Answer: B
154. Brain part regulating temp, hunger, thirst?
  • A. Cerebellum
  • B. Thalamus
  • C. Hypothalamus
  • D. Medulla
Correct Answer: C
155. mEq of Ca in 1g Calcium Gluconate (MW 430)?
  • A. 2.3
  • B. 4.6
  • C. 9.3
  • D. 20
Correct Answer: B
156. Mix 300g (10%), 150g (20%), 50g (5%). Final %?
  • A. 10.5%
  • B. 12.5%
  • C. 15.0%
  • D. 11.0%
Correct Answer: B
157. Equation for shelf-life from accelerated stability?
  • A. Henderson-Hasselbalch
  • B. Arrhenius
  • C. Stokes
  • D. Fick
Correct Answer: B
158. Filter size for sterilization?
  • A. 5.0
  • B. 1.2
  • C. 0.45
  • D. 0.22 micron
Correct Answer: D
159. Levigation is:
  • A. Trituration
  • B. Wetting with agent to reduce particle size
  • C. Mixing
  • D. Coating
Correct Answer: B
160. Loading Dose: Target 15 mg/L, Vd 40L.
  • A. 300 mg
  • B. 600 mg
  • C. 900 mg
  • D. 1200 mg
Correct Answer: B
161. Property crossing BBB best?
  • A. High MW
  • B. Hydrophilic
  • C. Ionized
  • D. High Lipophilicity
Correct Answer: D
162. Grams of Dextrose in 500 mL D50W?
  • A. 50
  • B. 125
  • C. 250
  • D. 500
Correct Answer: C
163. Weak Base (pKa 8) in pH 6. Predominant form?
  • A. Unionized
  • B. Ionized (poorly absorbed)
  • C. Degraded
  • D. Precipitated
Correct Answer: B
164. Application for Generic Drug?
  • A. NDA
  • B. BLA
  • C. ANDA
  • D. IND
Correct Answer: C
165. Medicare Part B covers:
  • A. Hospital
  • B. DME / Physician services
  • C. Rx Drugs
  • D. Nursing home
Correct Answer: B
166. Type II Error (Beta):
  • A. False Positive
  • B. False Negative (Missed difference)
  • C. Large sample
  • D. Not randomized
Correct Answer: B
167. Duty to do good?
  • A. Autonomy
  • B. Beneficence
  • C. Non-maleficence
  • D. Justice
Correct Answer: B
168. DSCSA Track and Trace record retention?
  • A. 1 year
  • B. 2 years
  • C. 6 years
  • D. 10 years
Correct Answer: C
169. ISMP High Alert Medication?
  • A. Amoxicillin
  • B. Methotrexate (oral)
  • C. Ibuprofen
  • D. Docusate
Correct Answer: B
170. Tumor Lysis Syndrome electrolytes?
  • A. HypoK
  • B. HyperK, HyperPhos, HypoCa, HyperUric
  • C. HypoNa
  • D. Normal
Correct Answer: B
171. Preferred for chronic HTN in pregnancy?
  • A. Lisinopril
  • B. Losartan
  • C. Labetalol / Methyldopa
  • D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: C
172. MOA of Tiotropium?
  • A. LABA
  • B. SABA
  • C. LAMA
  • D. ICS
Correct Answer: C
173. Symptom of DKA?
  • A. Hypoglycemia
  • B. Fruity breath
  • C. Slow breathing
  • D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
174. Hep B: HBsAg(+), Anti-HBc(+), Anti-HBs(-).
  • A. Vaccinated
  • B. Resolved
  • C. Chronic Infection
  • D. Susceptible
Correct Answer: C
175. TPN component with 3.4 kcal/g?
  • A. Amino Acid
  • B. Dextrose Monohydrate
  • C. Lipids
  • D. Electrolytes
Correct Answer: B
176. Contraindicated with Sildenafil for chest pain?
  • A. Aspirin
  • B. Morphine
  • C. Nitroglycerin
  • D. Oxygen
Correct Answer: C
177. Tool for fracture risk?
  • A. CHADS2
  • B. FRAX
  • C. Framingham
  • D. Child-Pugh
Correct Answer: B
178. MOA of Heparin?
  • A. Vit K
  • B. Binds Antithrombin III
  • C. Thrombin inhibitor
  • D. Platelets
Correct Answer: B
179. No tolerance develops to:
  • A. Analgesia
  • B. Sedation
  • C. Resp Depression
  • D. Constipation
Correct Answer: D
180. Antibiotic causing tendon rupture?
  • A. Macrolide
  • B. Fluoroquinolone
  • C. Tetracycline
  • D. Penicillin
Correct Answer: B
181. Vitamin causing flushing?
  • A. Niacin
  • B. Riboflavin
  • C. Thiamine
  • D. Pyridoxine
Correct Answer: A
182. Kernicterus displacement by:
  • A. Penicillin
  • B. Ceftriaxone
  • C. APAP
  • D. Digoxin
Correct Answer: B
183. Elimination after 4 half-lives (24hr, t1/2=6)?
  • A. 50%
  • B. 75%
  • C. 87.5%
  • D. ~94%
Correct Answer: D
184. Aspirin in viral children linked to:
  • A. Reye's Syndrome
  • B. Guillain-Barre
  • C. SJS
  • D. Kawasaki
Correct Answer: A
185. Gas causing Nitro vasodilation?
  • A. CO2
  • B. Nitric Oxide (NO)
  • C. NO2
  • D. O2
Correct Answer: B
186. Benzo antagonist?
  • A. Naloxone
  • B. Flumazenil
  • C. NAC
  • D. Protamine
Correct Answer: B
187. Gingival Hyperplasia?
  • A. Phenytoin
  • B. Lisinopril
  • C. Metformin
  • D. Aspirin
Correct Answer: A
188. Schedule of Alprazolam?
  • A. I
  • B. II
  • C. III
  • D. IV
Correct Answer: D
189. Troche is a:
  • A. Lozenge
  • B. Suppository
  • C. Patch
  • D. Cream
Correct Answer: A
190. Site of APAP metabolism?
  • A. Kidney
  • B. Liver
  • C. Lungs
  • D. Spleen
Correct Answer: B
191. Antidote for Organophosphates?
  • A. Atropine + Pralidoxime
  • B. Vit K
  • C. Methylene Blue
  • D. Ethanol
Correct Answer: A
192. Red-Orange fluids?
  • A. Rifampin
  • B. INH
  • C. Ethambutol
  • D. PZA
Correct Answer: A
193. Cochrane Library known for?
  • A. Pricing
  • B. Systematic Reviews
  • C. Structure
  • D. Labeling
Correct Answer: B
194. Pill-rolling tremor?
  • A. Alzheimer's
  • B. Parkinson's
  • C. MS
  • D. Epilepsy
Correct Answer: B
195. Diuretic causing Hyperkalemia?
  • A. Furosemide
  • B. HCTZ
  • C. Spironolactone
  • D. Bumetanide
Correct Answer: C
196. Max days supply federal law CII?
  • A. 30
  • B. 90
  • C. No specific federal limit (No refills)
  • D. 7
Correct Answer: C
197. Monitor for UFH?
  • A. INR
  • B. aPTT
  • C. Platelets
  • D. SCr
Correct Answer: B
198. Omeprazole is:
  • A. H2RA
  • B. PPI
  • C. Antacid
  • D. Prostaglandin
Correct Answer: B
199. Treat APAP liver tox?
  • A. N-Acetylcysteine
  • B. MTX
  • C. Deferoxamine
  • D. Succimer
Correct Answer: A
200. Anaphylaxis first line?
  • A. IM Epinephrine
  • B. Oral Benadryl
  • C. IV Steroids
  • D. Albuterol
Correct Answer: A
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