Pharmacy as a career MCQs With Answer

Pharmacy as a career MCQs with answers help B. Pharm students explore diverse roles across community pharmacy, hospital pharmacy, pharmaceutical industry, regulatory affairs, pharmacovigilance, and clinical research. By revising core concepts like GMP, GCP, GLP, dosage forms, bioavailability, stability studies, patient counseling, medication safety, and ethics, you build job-ready competence. Understanding national systems (PCI, CDSCO, IPC, GPAT) and global frameworks (ICH guidelines, CTD, Orange Book) strengthens professional readiness. These practice questions connect theory to real-world tasks: prescription interpretation, storage conditions, formulary management, ADR reporting, pharmacoeconomics, QA vs QC, and cleanroom classifications. Use this set to assess readiness for internships, interviews, and higher studies.

Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which statement best describes the primary role of a community pharmacist?

• Dispense medicines without providing counseling
• Design new molecular entities in a discovery lab
• Provide patient-centered dispensing with counseling, interaction screening, and adherence support
• Assist surgeons in operative procedures

Correct Answer: Provide patient-centered dispensing with counseling, interaction screening, and adherence support

Q2. In India, which statutory body regulates pharmacy education standards and the profession of pharmacy?

• Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
• All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
• National Medical Commission (NMC)
• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

Correct Answer: Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)

Q3. Which function primarily ensures GMP compliance through systems, SOPs, change control, and validation oversight?

• Quality Assurance (QA)
• Quality Control (QC)
• Sales and Marketing
• Medical Affairs

Correct Answer: Quality Assurance (QA)

Q4. What is the core objective of pharmacovigilance?

• Maximize sales of medicines
• Reduce raw material procurement costs
• Detect, assess, understand, and prevent adverse effects and other medicine-related problems
• Increase tablet hardness to extend shelf life

Correct Answer: Detect, assess, understand, and prevent adverse effects and other medicine-related problems

Q5. Which phase of clinical trials is primarily dose-ranging and evaluates preliminary efficacy in patients?

• Phase I
• Phase II
• Phase III
• Phase IV

Correct Answer: Phase II

Q6. Which ICH guideline addresses stability testing of new drug substances and products?

• ICH Q1A(R2)
• ICH E6(R2)
• ICH Q3C
• ICH M4

Correct Answer: ICH Q1A(R2)

Q7. What is the recommended cold chain temperature range for most vaccines and certain biologics?

• −20 to −10°C
• 2–8°C
• 15–25°C
• 30–40°C

Correct Answer: 2–8°C

Q8. Controlled room temperature (CRT) for pharmaceutical storage is best described as:

• 10–15°C
• 15–25°C
• 20–25°C with permitted excursions per pharmacopeial guidance
• 25–30°C

Correct Answer: 20–25°C with permitted excursions per pharmacopeial guidance

Q9. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules (India), Schedule H indicates:

• Non-prescription over-the-counter medicines
• Prescription-only medicines to be dispensed on a valid Rx
• Controlled narcotic substances only
• Traditional Ayurvedic proprietary medicines

Correct Answer: Prescription-only medicines to be dispensed on a valid Rx

Q10. The Pharmacy and Therapeutics (P&T) Committee in a hospital primarily oversees:

• Pharmacy staff hiring
• Hospital formulary management and medication-use policies
• Surgical theater scheduling
• Patient billing systems

Correct Answer: Hospital formulary management and medication-use policies

Q11. Medication reconciliation is best described as:

• Matching patient identity to a wristband
• The systematic process of creating an accurate medication list across care transitions to resolve discrepancies
• Compounding sterile preparations in a cleanroom
• Insurance billing for prescriptions

Correct Answer: The systematic process of creating an accurate medication list across care transitions to resolve discrepancies

Q12. A key soft skill for pharmacists that directly improves patient outcomes is:

• Advanced calculus
• Communication and empathy during counseling
• High-speed typing
• Driving proficiency

Correct Answer: Communication and empathy during counseling

Q13. In the CTD/eCTD format, which module contains Quality (CMC) information?

• Module 1
• Module 2
• Module 3
• Module 5

Correct Answer: Module 3

Q14. In bioequivalence studies, the primary pharmacokinetic metrics compared between test and reference are:

• Tlag and mean residence time (MRT)
• Cmax and AUC
• Half-life and clearance
• Tmax alone

Correct Answer: Cmax and AUC

Q15. In India, applications for marketing authorization of new drugs are submitted to:

• World Health Organization (WHO)
• CDSCO (office of the DCGI)
• State Pharmacy Council
• FSSAI

Correct Answer: CDSCO (office of the DCGI)

Q16. The Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) is published by:

• Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)
• Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
• Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

Correct Answer: Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)

Q17. A clinical pharmacist’s key contribution during ward rounds is to:

• Dispense medications only
• Manage medication therapy, identify drug-related problems, and optimize dosing
• Perform radiological imaging
• Draw blood samples routinely

Correct Answer: Manage medication therapy, identify drug-related problems, and optimize dosing

Q18. Good Documentation Practices are summarized by ALCOA. The letter “C” stands for:

• Consistent
• Contemporaneous
• Confidential
• Complete

Correct Answer: Contemporaneous

Q19. Which department typically codes adverse events using MedDRA and prepares Individual Case Safety Reports (ICSRs)?

• Regulatory Affairs
• Pharmacovigilance
• Production
• Finance

Correct Answer: Pharmacovigilance

Q20. An entry-level role in clinical research commonly offered to B. Pharm graduates is:

• Clinical Research Associate (CRA) trainee or Clinical Research Coordinator (CRC)
• Manufacturing head
• Principal investigator
• Hospital administrator

Correct Answer: Clinical Research Associate (CRA) trainee or Clinical Research Coordinator (CRC)

Q21. Which route/dosage form most effectively bypasses first-pass hepatic metabolism?

• Conventional oral tablet swallowed
• Sublingual tablet
• Enteric-coated tablet
• Rectal suppository

Correct Answer: Sublingual tablet

Q22. In sterile manufacturing for aseptic filling, the critical work zone should meet which cleanroom grade?

• Grade D
• Grade C
• Grade B
• Grade A (ISO 5)

Correct Answer: Grade A (ISO 5)

Q23. The department primarily responsible for preparing eCTD dossiers and handling post-approval variations is:

• Marketing
• Regulatory Affairs
• Production
• Warehouse

Correct Answer: Regulatory Affairs

Q24. In pharmacoeconomics, which analysis compares cost per additional natural unit of effect (e.g., mmHg reduction, life-years gained)?

• Cost-minimization analysis
• Cost-effectiveness analysis
• Cost-utility analysis
• Cost-benefit analysis

Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis

Q25. For B. Pharm students, GPAT is primarily used for:

• Licensure to practice as a pharmacist
• Admission and scholarships for M. Pharm/Ph.D. programs
• Entry into medical colleges
• Immigration processing

Correct Answer: Admission and scholarships for M. Pharm/Ph.D. programs

Q26. Which statement best describes the difference between QA and QC in pharmaceutical manufacturing?

• QA tests raw materials and finished products
• QC approves batch records and manages change control
• QA is system-oriented to prevent defects; QC is product-oriented to detect defects through testing
• QA and QC are identical functions

Correct Answer: QA is system-oriented to prevent defects; QC is product-oriented to detect defects through testing

Q27. Which is an essential counseling point when dispensing antibiotics?

• Stop therapy as soon as symptoms improve
• Share leftover medicines with family members
• Complete the full prescribed course and explain the risk of resistance
• Double the next dose if a dose is missed

Correct Answer: Complete the full prescribed course and explain the risk of resistance

Q28. Which US FDA publication is used to verify therapeutic equivalence for generic substitution?

• Orange Book
• Pink Book
• Yellow Book
• Red Book

Correct Answer: Orange Book

Q29. On a prescription, the abbreviation “b.i.d.” means:

• Once daily
• Twice daily
• Three times daily
• Four times daily

Correct Answer: Twice daily

Q30. For a pharmacist aiming for a direct patient-care clinical pharmacist role, which qualification offers the most specialized preparation?

• Pharm.D
• B.Tech in Chemical Engineering
• MBA
• M.Sc in Zoology

Correct Answer: Pharm.D

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