Definition and classification of adverse drug reactions (ADRs) MCQs With Answer

Definition and classification of adverse drug reactions (ADRs) MCQs With Answer

Adverse drug reactions (ADRs) are unwanted or harmful effects that occur at normal therapeutic doses. Clear definitions, pharmacological mechanisms, and robust classification systems (e.g., Rawlins & Thompson, WHO) help B. Pharm students identify, predict and manage ADRs. Key concepts include Type A (predictable, dose-related) and Type B (idiosyncratic, non‑dose-related) reactions, immunologic allergies, pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic causes, severity versus seriousness, causality assessment (Naranjo, WHO‑UMC) and pharmacovigilance reporting. Understanding preventability, monitoring strategies, and common high‑risk examples prepares future pharmacists for clinical practice and safety surveillance. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is the most widely accepted definition of an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?

  • An unintended therapeutic benefit from a drug
  • A harmful or unpleasant reaction occurring at normal therapeutic doses
  • A side effect that occurs only in overdose situations
  • A reaction occurring only from medication errors

Correct Answer: A harmful or unpleasant reaction occurring at normal therapeutic doses

Q2. Which classification divides ADRs into Type A and Type B?

  • Gell and Coombs classification
  • Rawlins and Thompson classification
  • WHO Essential Medicines List
  • Naranjo scale

Correct Answer: Rawlins and Thompson classification

Q3. Which characteristic best describes a Type A ADR?

  • Unpredictable and immune‑mediated
  • Dose‑related and predictable from pharmacology
  • Occurs only after prolonged therapy
  • Always fatal

Correct Answer: Dose‑related and predictable from pharmacology

Q4. Which of the following is an example of a Type B ADR?

  • Hypoglycemia from insulin overdose
  • Gastrointestinal upset from aspirin
  • Penicillin‑induced anaphylaxis
  • Bradycardia from beta‑blockers at high dose

Correct Answer: Penicillin‑induced anaphylaxis

Q5. The Naranjo algorithm is used to assess:

  • Severity of an ADR
  • Causality between drug and adverse event
  • Pharmacokinetic interactions
  • Cost‑effectiveness of therapy

Correct Answer: Causality between drug and adverse event

Q6. Which term describes an adverse event that occurs due to abnormal host response unrelated to drug pharmacology?

  • Type A reaction
  • Pseudoallergic reaction
  • Type B reaction
  • Side effect

Correct Answer: Type B reaction

Q7. Which Gell and Coombs type is immediate IgE‑mediated hypersensitivity?

  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV

Correct Answer: Type I

Q8. Which ADR classification emphasizes predictability from pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?

  • Type B only
  • Type A only
  • Type C (chronic) only
  • Error‑related ADRs

Correct Answer: Type A only

Q9. Which of the following is considered a preventable ADR?

  • Idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity with no risk factors
  • Allergic rash in a patient with known allergy who is re‑exposed
  • Teratogenic effect occurring despite pregnancy testing
  • Genetically predisposed enzyme deficiency causing toxicity

Correct Answer: Allergic rash in a patient with known allergy who is re‑exposed

Q10. Which WHO‑UMC causality category indicates a reasonable temporal relationship and unlikely alternative causes?

  • Unassessable
  • Certain
  • Possible
  • Unlikely

Correct Answer: Possible

Q11. Which ADR type is described as “time‑related” and often appears after prolonged treatment?

  • Type A
  • Type B
  • Type C
  • Type E

Correct Answer: Type C

Q12. Which mechanism commonly explains dose‑related ADRs?

  • Immune complex formation
  • Pharmacodynamic exaggeration of drug effect
  • Autoimmune response
  • Hapten formation

Correct Answer: Pharmacodynamic exaggeration of drug effect

Q13. Which adverse reaction term refers to a non‑immune reaction that clinically mimics allergy?

  • Idiosyncrasy
  • Pseudoallergic reaction
  • Type IV hypersensitivity
  • Teratogenic effect

Correct Answer: Pseudoallergic reaction

Q14. Which of the following indicates a “serious” ADR by regulatory definition?

  • Minor rash resolving spontaneously
  • Hospitalization or prolongation of hospitalization
  • Transient headache
  • Mild nausea

Correct Answer: Hospitalization or prolongation of hospitalization

Q15. Which pharmacokinetic cause can increase ADR risk by raising drug levels?

  • Enzyme induction
  • Increased renal clearance
  • Enzyme inhibition
  • Enhanced protein binding

Correct Answer: Enzyme inhibition

Q16. The Yellow Card scheme in pharmacovigilance is primarily associated with which country?

  • United States
  • India
  • United Kingdom
  • Australia

Correct Answer: United Kingdom

Q17. Which ADR monitoring method relies on spontaneous voluntary reports from healthcare professionals?

  • Active surveillance
  • Spontaneous reporting system
  • Randomized controlled trials
  • Prescription event monitoring only

Correct Answer: Spontaneous reporting system

Q18. Rechallenge that reproduces the adverse effect after stopping and reintroducing the drug provides evidence for what?

  • Severity assessment only
  • Definitive causality
  • No useful information
  • Confirms preventability but not causality

Correct Answer: Definitive causality

Q19. Which ADR type is typically associated with withdrawal reactions when a drug is stopped?

  • Type D (withdrawal)
  • Type A
  • Type B
  • Type E (withdrawal)

Correct Answer: Type E (withdrawal)

Q20. Which organ is most commonly implicated in serious idiosyncratic ADRs related to drug metabolism?

  • Skin
  • Liver
  • Bone marrow
  • Kidney

Correct Answer: Liver

Q21. Which parameter expresses the increase in risk of an ADR in the exposed group relative to unexposed?

  • Absolute risk
  • Number needed to treat
  • Relative risk
  • Incidence density only

Correct Answer: Relative risk

Q22. Stevens‑Johnson syndrome is best classified as which type of ADR manifestation?

  • Cardiovascular ADR
  • Severe cutaneous adverse reaction
  • Minor allergic rash
  • Gastrointestinal intolerance

Correct Answer: Severe cutaneous adverse reaction

Q23. In pharmacovigilance signal detection, a “signal” means:

  • Confirmed causal association
  • Evidence suggesting a new causal association or new aspect of a known association
  • An adverse event that is always benign
  • Only laboratory anomalies

Correct Answer: Evidence suggesting a new causal association or new aspect of a known association

Q24. Which test or approach helps identify whether an ADR is immune‑mediated?

  • Therapeutic drug monitoring
  • Skin testing or specific IgE measurement
  • Electrocardiogram
  • Renal function tests

Correct Answer: Skin testing or specific IgE measurement

Q25. Which of the following is NOT typically considered an ADR but rather a medication error?

  • Dose omission leading to therapeutic failure
  • Anaphylaxis to a drug in an allergic patient
  • Heparin‑induced thrombocytopenia
  • Drug‑induced liver injury at therapeutic dose

Correct Answer: Dose omission leading to therapeutic failure

Q26. Which preventive strategy reduces ADRs caused by drug–drug interactions?

  • Prescribing multiple drugs without review
  • Using electronic interaction checking and medication reconciliation
  • Avoiding therapeutic drug monitoring
  • Ignoring patient comorbidities

Correct Answer: Using electronic interaction checking and medication reconciliation

Q27. A dose‑related extension of a drug’s therapeutic effect (e.g., bleeding with warfarin) is best described as:

  • Type B ADR
  • Type A ADR
  • Allergic reaction
  • Idiosyncrasy

Correct Answer: Type A ADR

Q28. Pharmacogenomic testing before prescribing can help prevent which ADRs?

  • All ADRs irrespective of mechanism
  • Genetically‑predicted idiosyncratic reactions (e.g., HLA‑associated hypersensitivity)
  • Allergic reactions without genetic markers
  • Medication administration errors

Correct Answer: Genetically‑predicted idiosyncratic reactions (e.g., HLA‑associated hypersensitivity)

Q29. Which regulatory action is issued when an ADR risk requires clinicians to follow special monitoring and warnings?

  • Black box warning
  • OTC approval
  • Patent extension
  • Formulary deletion only

Correct Answer: Black box warning

Q30. Which statement best differentiates an adverse event (AE) from an ADR?

  • An AE is always caused by the drug; an ADR is unrelated
  • An AE is any untoward medical occurrence, while an ADR is a harmful response with at least a reasonable possibility of a causal relationship to the drug
  • AEs are always serious, ADRs are always mild
  • There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable

Correct Answer: An AE is any untoward medical occurrence, while an ADR is a harmful response with at least a reasonable possibility of a causal relationship to the drug

Author

  • G S Sachin
    : Author

    G S Sachin is a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. He holds a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research and creates clear, accurate educational content on pharmacology, drug mechanisms of action, pharmacist learning, and GPAT exam preparation.

    Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com

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