RRB Pharmacist 2026 Memory Based Questions

Each question includes the correct answer in bold and a short explanation for quick revision of RRB PHARMACIST 2026.

General Awareness and Aptitude Questions

Q.1 Who among the following was a Sanskrit scholar and helped in opening about 35 girls’ schools in Bengal?

1. Swami Vivekananda
2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
4. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Answer: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Explanation: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a noted Sanskrit scholar and major social reformer who actively promoted women’s education and helped open many girls’ schools in Bengal.

Q.2 Sumit travels from A to B at a speed of 40 km/hr in 72 minutes and from B to C at a speed of 50 km/hr in 42 minutes. Find the average speed of Sumit from A to C. (Rounded off your answer to two decimal places)

1. 42.50 km/h
2. 45.60 km/h
3. 45.45 km/h
4. 43.68 km/h

Answer: 43.68 km/h

Explanation: Distance AB = 40 × 72/60 = 48 km. Distance BC = 50 × 42/60 = 35 km. Total distance = 83 km and total time = 114 minutes = 1.9 hours. Average speed = 83/1.9 = 43.68 km/h.

Q.3 If the physical conditions of the Earth’s atmosphere suddenly became completely stationary, how would this affect the twinkling of stars?

1. Stars would twinkle more rapidly
2. Stars would stop twinkling
3. Stars would appear larger
4. Stars would change color

Answer: Stars would stop twinkling

Explanation: Twinkling is caused by continuous atmospheric refraction due to moving air layers. If the atmosphere became completely stationary, that variation would stop and stars would stop twinkling.

Q.4 Which of the following describes the main difference between simple permanent tissue and complex permanent tissue?

1. Simple permanent tissue is made of one type of cell, whereas complex permanent tissue is made of different types of cells.
2. Simple permanent tissue stores food only, whereas complex permanent tissue performs photosynthesis only.
3. Simple permanent tissue is always dead, whereas complex permanent tissue is always living.
4. Simple permanent tissue is present only in leaves, whereas complex permanent tissue is present only in roots.

Answer: Simple permanent tissue is made of one type of cell, whereas complex permanent tissue is made of different types of cells.

Explanation: Simple permanent tissue consists of similar cells, while complex permanent tissue like xylem and phloem contains more than one type of cell working together.

Q.5 A science project requires a real, inverted image of the same size as the object using a concave mirror. Based on the mirror formula, where should the object be placed relative to the mirror?

1. At the center of curvature (u = 2f)
2. At the focal point (u = f)
3. Beyond the center of curvature (u < 2f)
4. Between the pole and the focus (u > f, u < 0)

Answer: At the center of curvature (u = 2f)

Explanation: A concave mirror forms a real, inverted image of the same size as the object when the object is placed at the center of curvature.

Q.6 Which number must be added to 225 so that the square root of the result is exactly 16?

1. 31
2. 16
3. 25
4. 19

Answer: 31

Explanation: Required number = 16² – 225 = 256 – 225 = 31.

Q.7 The cleaning action of soap is due to the formation of:

1. Glycerol
2. Precipitates
3. Micelles
4. Hydration shells

Answer: Micelles

Explanation: Soaps form micelles in water. Their hydrophobic tails trap grease and oil, while hydrophilic heads remain in water, allowing dirt to be washed away.

Q.8 Which of the following Indian states is famous for the traditional Warli painting style?

1. Kerala
2. Punjab
3. Maharashtra
4. Rajasthan

Answer: Maharashtra

Explanation: Warli painting is a well-known tribal art form of Maharashtra.

Q.9 The Donkarayi Power House is located in which of the following states of India?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. Karnataka

Answer: Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Donkarayi Power House is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Q.10 Velamala Simmanna was chosen for Lok Nayak Foundation’s (LNF) literary award 2025 for his contributions to the promotion of which language and literature?

1. Telugu
2. Kannada
3. Malayalam
4. Tamil

Answer: Telugu

Explanation: Velamala Simmanna was recognized for his contribution to Telugu language and literature.

Q.11 Which of the following statements about soap and its cleaning action is INCORRECT?

1. Soap molecules form micelles that trap oil and grease, allowing them to be dispersed in water and washed away.
2. The hydrophobic part of a soap molecule repels water, aiding in the removal of oily substances.
3. Soap molecules have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic ends, allowing them to interact with both water and oil.
4. The hydrophilic part of a soap molecule interacts with hydrocarbons, while the hydrophobic part is attracted to water.

Answer: The hydrophilic part of a soap molecule interacts with hydrocarbons, while the hydrophobic part is attracted to water.

Explanation: The statement is reversed. The hydrophilic part interacts with water, while the hydrophobic part interacts with oil or hydrocarbons.

Q.12 A student scored 62 marks in theory and 22 marks in practical. The weightages of 7 and 3 are assigned to the theory and the practical components respectively for calculating the final score. The weighted average score of the student is:

1. 54
2. 56
3. 52
4. 50

Answer: 50

Explanation: Weighted average = (62×7 + 22×3) / (7+3) = (434 + 66) / 10 = 50.

Q.13 Which process does NOT occur during aerobic respiration in animal cells?

1. Glycolysis
2. Fermentation
3. Krebs cycle
4. Electron transport chain

Answer: Fermentation

Explanation: Fermentation is an anaerobic process. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain are part of aerobic respiration.

Q.14 The power of accommodation of the human eye refers to the ability of the eye to:

1. Change the distance between the retina and lens
2. Adjust the intensity of light entering the eye
3. Change the focal length of the eye lens
4. Change the size of the pupil

Answer: Change the focal length of the eye lens

Explanation: Accommodation is the ability of the eye lens to change its focal length so objects at different distances can be focused on the retina.

Q.15 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be done from left to right only (Left) % E & € F * U $ O & K $ U B % M © & W * L % (Right) How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a symbol?

1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 4

Answer: 2

Explanation: Only two symbols satisfy the condition of being immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol in the given sequence.

Q.16 In which Indian region were ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ traditionally constructed as diversion channels to carry water from mountain streams for agricultural irrigation?

1. Deccan Plateau
2. Indo-Gangetic Plains
3. Eastern Coastal Plains
4. Western Himalayas

Answer: Western Himalayas

Explanation: Guls or kuls are traditional irrigation channels of the Western Himalayan region.

Q.17 Which of the following categories of fundamental rights is NOT correctly matched with their respective articles from the Constitution of India?

1. Right against exploitation : Articles 23 & 24
2. Right to freedom : Articles 19–22
3. Right to equality : Articles 15–21
4. Right to freedom of religion : Articles 25–28

Answer: Right to equality : Articles 15–21

Explanation: Right to equality covers Articles 14 to 18, so the given match with Articles 15 to 21 is incorrect.

Q.18 In a row of people all facing north, Nimat is 29th from the left end. Pemila is 44th from the left end. Pemila is exactly between Nimat and Kishan. If Kishan is 9th from the right end of the row, how many people are there in the row?

1. 68
2. 64
3. 66
4. 67

Answer: 67

Explanation: Nimat is at 29 and Pemila at 44, so the gap is 15. Kishan must be at 59 from the left. If Kishan is 9th from the right, total people = 59 + 9 – 1 = 67.

Q.19 Who was elected as the 15th Vice President of India in September 2025?

1. B Sudershan Reddy
2. CP Radhakrishnan
3. Jagdeep Dhankhar
4. P Chidambaram

Answer: CP Radhakrishnan

Explanation: CP Radhakrishnan was elected as the 15th Vice President of India.

Q.20 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster)

1. CG:FK
2. EN:HR
3. OR:RY
4. RM:UQ

Answer: OR:RY

Explanation: In CG:FK, EN:HR, and RM:UQ, both letters move forward by +3 and +4 respectively. OR:RY does not follow the same pattern.

Q.21 Which component is used to open or close an electric circuit?

1. Resistor
2. Switch
3. Ammeter
4. Electric bulb

Answer: Switch

Explanation: A switch is the device used to complete or break an electric circuit.

Q.22 Every child inherits an X chromosome from their mother. Which reasoning best explains this biological certainty?

1. Mothers selectively pass X or Y chromosomes.
2. X inheritance from mother depends on environment.
3. Mothers pass both X and Y chromosomes.
4. Mothers produce only X-bearing eggs.

Answer: Mothers produce only X-bearing eggs.

Explanation: Females have XX chromosomes, so all ova carry only an X chromosome. The father contributes either X or Y.

Q.23 In a certain code language, ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘7542’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘7485’. What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?

1. 5
2. 4
3. 7
4. 8

Answer: 8

Explanation: From TOUR = 7542 and TURN = 7485, the common letters help map T = 7, U = 4, R = 5, O = 2, so N = 8.

Q.24 Kaveri Vaaman is a variety of which fruit developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) as the country’s first mutant variety of that fruit, officially released by the Government of India in November 2025?

1. Banana
2. Apple
3. Guava
4. Grapes

Answer: Banana

Explanation: Kaveri Vaaman is a mutant variety of banana released by BARC.

Q.25 What was the budget allocation for infrastructure spending in India for the financial year 2023-24?

1. ₹10 lakh crore
2. ₹12 lakh crore
3. ₹7.5 lakh crore
4. ₹5 lakh crore

Answer: ₹10 lakh crore

Explanation: The Union Budget 2023-24 raised capital expenditure for infrastructure to ₹10 lakh crore.

Q.26 Which of the following is a key feature of the Right to Information Act?

1. Citizens must get court approval to ask questions
2. Citizens can access government records and decisions
3. Officials can hide any data
4. Only MPs can ask for information

Answer: Citizens can access government records and decisions

Explanation: The RTI Act empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities and access government records and decisions.

Q.27 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. 3 – 28 5 – 126

1. 6 – 36
2. 4 – 63
3. 2 – 9
4. 10 – 100

Answer: 2 – 9

Explanation: The pattern is n³ + 1. For 3, 3³ + 1 = 28 and for 5, 5³ + 1 = 126. So 2 gives 2³ + 1 = 9.

Q.28 A book is marked at ₹170 with a 20% discount. What additional percentage discount should be given to reduce the net selling price to ₹102?

1. 23%
2. 27%
3. 25%
4. 30%

Answer: 25%

Explanation: After 20% discount, price = 170 × 0.8 = ₹136. To reach ₹102, reduction needed = 34. Percentage discount = 34/136 × 100 = 25%.

Q.29 If you need to recover salt from a saltwater solution in a laboratory, which process should you use?

1. Filtration
2. Chromatography
3. Decantation
4. Distillation

Answer: Distillation

Explanation: Distillation separates the solvent from the dissolved salt. Water vaporizes and condenses, leaving salt behind for recovery.

Q.30 The ratio of the heights of a right circular cone and a right circular cylinder is 9 : 2 and the ratio of the radii of their bases is 3 : 2. If the volume of the cylinder is 448 cm3, then the volume (in cm3) of the cone is:

1. 1519
2. 1509
3. 1521
4. 1512

Answer: 1512

Explanation: Volume ratio = [(1/3)πr₁²h₁] / [πr₂²h₂] = (1/3)×(3²/2²)×(9/2) = 27/8. So cone volume = 448 × 27/8 = 1512 cm³.

Professional Ability Questions

Q.1 What is the primary mechanism by which phentermine decreases appetite?

1. By inhibiting intestinal absorption of fats
2. By increasing norepinephrine and dopamine levels in the brain
3. By blocking serotonin receptors
4. By stimulating gastric acid secretion

Answer: By increasing norepinephrine and dopamine levels in the brain

Explanation: Phentermine is a sympathomimetic appetite suppressant that increases norepinephrine release and also influences dopamine pathways in the CNS, reducing hunger.

Q.2 What is the main process involved in the preparation of Asavas and Aristas?

1. Fermentation
2. Distillation
3. Filtration
4. Sublimation

Answer: Fermentation

Explanation: Asavas and Aristas are Ayurvedic fermented liquid preparations.

Q.3 When dilute hydrochloric acid catalyzes the inversion of sucrose, what is the observed order of the reaction?

1. Second order
2. Third order
3. First order
4. Zero order

Answer: First order

Explanation: Because water is present in excess, sucrose inversion follows pseudo first-order kinetics.

Q.4 In CRDDS, why should the absorption rate be faster than the release rate from the dosage form?

1. To increase shelf life
2. To improve taste masking
3. To enhance packaging
4. To prevent dose dumping

Answer: To prevent dose dumping

Explanation: In controlled release systems, drug absorption should be at least as fast as drug release to avoid accumulation at the absorption site and sudden excessive availability.

Q.5 If a controlled drug delivery system is designed without considering the uniformity of absorption, what is the most likely negative outcome?

1. Enhanced color stability
2. Better taste masking
3. Inconsistent drug levels in the body
4. Improved packaging

Answer: Inconsistent drug levels in the body

Explanation: Non-uniform absorption leads to fluctuating plasma concentrations and inconsistent therapeutic response.

Q.6 Which statement best describes the action of cyanide in the respiratory chain?

1. Cyanide stimulates the citric acid cycle.
2. Cyanide acts as a substrate for ATP synthase.
3. Cyanide blocks electron transfer to oxygen, preventing ATP production.
4. Cyanide increases glucose breakdown in glycolysis.

Answer: Cyanide blocks electron transfer to oxygen, preventing ATP production.

Explanation: Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase in the electron transport chain, blocking transfer of electrons to oxygen and halting oxidative phosphorylation.

Q.7 Why is recombinant DNA technology preferred for vaccine development over traditional methods?

1. It improves drug flavor.
2. It reduces tablet bitterness.
3. It allows precise antigen production.
4. It increases pill size.

Answer: It allows precise antigen production.

Explanation: Recombinant DNA technology allows specific antigens to be produced in a controlled and safe way.

Q.8 In subcutaneous administration, which property of the drug does not affect its absorption rate?

1. Molecular weight
2. Gastric emptying time
3. Lipid solubility
4. Ionization of the drug

Answer: Gastric emptying time

Explanation: Gastric emptying affects orally administered drugs, not subcutaneous absorption.

Q.9 Which statement best describes dietary fibers in plants?

1. They are simple sugars used for immediate energy.
2. They are parts like leaves, stems, fruits, and seeds that cannot be digested or absorbed by the body.
3. They are nutrients easily absorbed by the body.
4. They are produced by animals.

Answer: They are parts like leaves, stems, fruits, and seeds that cannot be digested or absorbed by the body.

Explanation: Dietary fibre refers to indigestible plant components such as cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, and lignin found in various plant parts.

Q.10 Which of the following best describes the main focus of pharmacology as a discipline?

1. Study of the effects of drugs on living systems
2. Study of drug packaging methods
3. Study of drug compounding techniques
4. Study of drug pricing strategies

Answer: Study of the effects of drugs on living systems

Explanation: Pharmacology deals with how drugs act on living organisms and how organisms respond to drugs.

Q.11 A pharmaceutical company needs to sterilize heat-sensitive plastic syringes. Which chemical method is most suitable?

1. Ethylene oxide gas sterilization
2. Autoclaving
3. Moist heat sterilization
4. Direct flaming

Answer: Ethylene oxide gas sterilization

Explanation: Ethylene oxide is suitable for sterilizing heat- and moisture-sensitive medical devices such as plastic syringes.

Q.12 Which of the following best describes a consumer in pharmaceutical marketing?

1. A retailer who stocks products for sale
2. A wholesaler who buys products to sell to others
3. An individual who buys products for personal use and not for resale
4. A company purchasing products to manufacture other goods

Answer: An individual who buys products for personal use and not for resale

Explanation: A consumer is the final user who purchases a product for personal use rather than resale.

Q.13 A chemist wants to reduce a ketone to an alkane in a basic medium using hydrazine. Which reaction mechanism should they select to achieve this transformation?

1. Clemmensen reduction
2. Witting reaction
3. Wolff-Kishner reduction
4. Cannizzaro reaction

Answer: Wolff-Kishner reduction

Explanation: Wolff-Kishner reduction converts aldehydes or ketones to alkanes using hydrazine in strongly basic medium.

Q.14 In an acid-base catalyzed reaction, what is the main function of the acid or base?

1. To stop the reaction
2. To decrease the reaction temperature
3. To change the reaction product
4. To increase the rate of the chemical reaction

Answer: To increase the rate of the chemical reaction

Explanation: Acids and bases act as catalysts by lowering activation energy and increasing reaction rate.

Q.15 Which type of dietary fibre is primarily responsible for bulking stool and facilitating the quick passage of waste through the elementary canal?

1. Soluble fibre
2. Dietary fat
3. Simple carbohydrates
4. Water-insoluble fibre

Answer: Water-insoluble fibre

Explanation: Insoluble fibre adds bulk to stool and speeds intestinal transit.

Q.16 Which form of chlorine is most commonly used for disinfecting water supplies and swimming pools?

1. Fluorides
2. Chloramines
3. Iodophores
4. Hypochlorites

Answer: Hypochlorites

Explanation: Hypochlorites such as sodium hypochlorite are widely used for water disinfection.

Q.17 Which risk factor for myocardial infarction cannot be modified?

1. Smoking
2. Obesity
3. Age
4. Poor oral hygiene

Answer: Age

Explanation: Age is a non-modifiable risk factor, while smoking and obesity are modifiable.

Q.18 Which drug is commonly used to prevent stroke in patients with a history of Transient ischemic attack?

1. Aspirin
2. Digoxin
3. Furosemide
4. Atorvastatin

Answer: Aspirin

Explanation: Aspirin is commonly used as an antiplatelet agent for secondary prevention after TIA.

Q.19 Which statement best describes the common chemical structure of aminoglycoside antibiotics?

1. They are characterized by a single amine group on a benzene ring
2. They contain a highly substituted 1,3-diaminocyclohexane central ring
3. They have an unsubstituted cyclohexane ring
4. They lack any ring structure in their core

Answer: They contain a highly substituted 1,3-diaminocyclohexane central ring

Explanation: Aminoglycosides contain an aminocyclitol nucleus, commonly 2-deoxystreptamine, with amino sugars attached.

Q.20 To ensure long-term stability of an emulsion, which combination of factors should be prioritized?

1. Disperse phase concentration of 55%, storage in sunlight, reduced emulsifier
2. Disperse phase concentration above 70%, storage at room temperature, minimal emulsifier
3. Disperse phase concentration of 40%, storage in cool place, adequate emulsifying agent
4. Disperse phase concentration below 20%, warm storage, excess emulsifier

Answer: Disperse phase concentration of 40%, storage in cool place, adequate emulsifying agent

Explanation: Moderate disperse phase concentration, cool storage, and adequate emulsifier improve emulsion stability.

Q.21 A patient is suspected to have ingested a compound with a carbonyl group that does not react with Fehling’s solution. Which of the following is most likely?

1. The compound is a carboxylic acid
2. The compound is a ketone
3. The compound is an aldehyde
4. The compound is an alcohol

Answer: The compound is a ketone

Explanation: Fehling’s solution is reduced by most aliphatic aldehydes, but ketones usually do not react.

Q.22 An emulsifying agent is used to stabilize an oil-in-water emulsion because of its:

1. High sweetness
2. Ability to reduce interfacial tension
3. Bright color
4. Strong odor

Answer: Ability to reduce interfacial tension

Explanation: Emulsifying agents stabilize emulsions mainly by reducing interfacial tension between oil and water.

Q.23 Which of the following factors does NOT affect acid strength?

1. Concentration of acid
2. Resonance stabilization
3. Electronegativity of the central atom
4. Bond strength between hydrogen and the rest of the molecule

Answer: Concentration of acid

Explanation: Acid strength is an intrinsic property related to structure and ionization tendency, not simply the concentration of the sample.

Q.24 Which organism produces aminoglycoside antibiotics?

1. Algae
2. Yeasts
3. Actinomycetes
4. Fungi

Answer: Actinomycetes

Explanation: Many aminoglycosides are produced by actinomycetes such as Streptomyces and Micromonospora.

Q.25 Which of the following is a common advantage of suspensions as biphasic liquid dosage forms?

1. Never separate into layers
2. Can mask the taste of unpleasant drugs
3. Remain physically stable without agitation
4. Do not require shaking before use

Answer: Can mask the taste of unpleasant drugs

Explanation: Suspensions can improve palatability because unpleasant tasting drugs remain undissolved and their taste can be masked more easily.

Q.26 A pharmacy wants to attract more customers by putting up posters that claim their products work faster than any other and guarantee a cure for specific illnesses. According to the Code of Pharmaceutical Ethics, what is the main ethical issue with this advertising approach?

1. It fails to mention product prices
2. It contains misleading and exaggerated claims, and uses the word ‘Cure’
3. It only advertises prescription medicines
4. It provides too much technical information

Answer: It contains misleading and exaggerated claims, and uses the word ‘Cure’

Explanation: Pharmaceutical ethics prohibits exaggerated, misleading claims and disallows the use of the word cure in such advertisements.

Q.27 Ticagrelor differs from clopidogrel by which mechanism of action?

1. Ticagrelor increases cAMP, clopidogrel decreases cAMP
2. Ticagrelor inhibits COX-1, clopidogrel inhibits COX-2
3. Ticagrelor is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist, clopidogrel is not
4. Ticagrelor is a reversible P2Y12 inhibitor, while clopidogrel is irreversible

Answer: Ticagrelor is a reversible P2Y12 inhibitor, while clopidogrel is irreversible

Explanation: Ticagrelor reversibly blocks the P2Y12 receptor, whereas clopidogrel irreversibly inhibits the same receptor after metabolic activation.

Q.28 What is a major advantage of using non-invasive transmucosal routes such as nasal or rectal for drug administration?

1. Delayed onset of action
2. Increased gastrointestinal irritation
3. Greater systemic availability
4. Reduced drug potency

Answer: Greater systemic availability

Explanation: Transmucosal routes can bypass some first-pass metabolism and improve systemic availability.

Q.29 In the preparation of Arista, what is the role of keeping the fermentation container in a special room, underground cellar, or heap of paddy?

1. To expose the mixture to sunlight
2. To maintain a constant temperature during fermentation
3. To add aroma from surroundings
4. To cool down the mixture rapidly

Answer: To maintain a constant temperature during fermentation

Explanation: A relatively constant temperature helps proper fermentation and uniform preparation of Arista.

Q.30 What is the function of a vector in molecular cloning?

1. To sequence DNA bases
2. To cut DNA fragments
3. To separate DNA fragments by size
4. To replicate inserted DNA in a host cell

Answer: To replicate inserted DNA in a host cell

Explanation: A vector carries foreign DNA into a host cell and allows its replication.

Q.31 According to the Code of Pharmaceutical Ethics, what is the ethical stance on using patient testimonials in pharmaceutical advertisements?

1. Patient testimonials are mandatory for all new drugs.
2. Patient testimonials can be used only if the patient is a celebrity.
3. Patient testimonials are encouraged if approved by the company.
4. Patient testimonials should not be used as they may mislead the public.

Answer: Patient testimonials should not be used as they may mislead the public.

Explanation: Patient testimonials are discouraged because they can mislead the public and promote irrational expectations.

Q.32 What is acid-base catalysis in chemical kinetics?

1. Neutralization of acids and bases
2. Acceleration of reaction by acids or bases
3. Formation of precipitate by acids or bases
4. Slowing of reaction by acids or bases

Answer: Acceleration of reaction by acids or bases

Explanation: Acid-base catalysis means a reaction rate is increased by the catalytic action of an acid or a base.

Q.33 Which colorant is commonly used to impart a yellow color to oral liquid preparations?

1. Erythrosine
2. Carmoisine
3. Brilliant blue
4. Sunset yellow

Answer: Sunset yellow

Explanation: Sunset yellow is a commonly used yellow-orange water-soluble colorant in oral liquid formulations.

Q.34 Which colorant is most suitable for use in a syrup intended for children, to improve appearance?

1. Oil-based pigment
2. Activated charcoal
3. Water-soluble food dye
4. Metallic powder

Answer: Water-soluble food dye

Explanation: Syrups are aqueous preparations, so water-soluble food dyes are the appropriate choice.

Q.35 According to international guidelines, which qualification phase would you focus on when you want to ensure that equipment performs consistently within defined limits during actual process runs?

1. Installation Qualification
2. Performance Qualification
3. Design Qualification
4. Operational Qualification

Answer: Performance Qualification

Explanation: Performance Qualification confirms that the equipment consistently performs as intended under actual operating conditions.

Q.36 If an emulsion separates into two layers that cannot be redispersed by shaking, what has likely occurred?

1. Creaming
2. Homogenization
3. Cracking
4. Phase inversion

Answer: Cracking

Explanation: Cracking is irreversible separation of an emulsion into distinct layers that cannot be redispersed by shaking.

Q.37 Which factor enhances drug absorption from a rectal suppository?

1. Thickened skin
2. High gastric acidity
3. Increased local blood flow
4. Presence of food in the rectum

Answer: Increased local blood flow

Explanation: Greater blood flow at the absorption site promotes faster and better rectal absorption.

Q.38 Which of the following illustrates why alphabetical classification of crude drugs may not be ideal for educational purposes?

1. It only classifies synthetic drugs
2. It highlights all chemical differences
3. It fails to teach relationships between drugs of similar sources
4. It always groups drugs by part used

Answer: It fails to teach relationships between drugs of similar sources

Explanation: Alphabetical classification is convenient for lookup, but it does not show pharmacognostic or biological relationships well.

Q.39 Which chemical sterilant is effective against bacterial spores but requires special handling due to toxicity?

1. Glutaraldehyde
2. Cresol
3. Chlorhexidine gluconate
4. Isopropyl alcohol

Answer: Glutaraldehyde

Explanation: Glutaraldehyde is a potent chemical sterilant with sporicidal activity, but it must be handled carefully because of toxicity and irritant effects.

Q.40 If an instrument is being installed in a new lab, which qualification phase should be documented according to the context?

1. Design Qualification
2. Process Validation
3. Installation Qualification
4. Vendor Qualification

Answer: Installation Qualification

Explanation: Installation Qualification documents that equipment has been installed correctly according to specifications.

Q.41 If an Asava preparation exhibits sour taste and excessive effervescence after fermentation, what is the most likely cause as per Ayurvedic formulation principles?

1. Overuse of Dhataki flowers
2. Insufficient addition of sugar
3. Contamination by unwanted microorganisms
4. Under-fermentation due to low temperature

Answer: Contamination by unwanted microorganisms

Explanation: Excess sourness and abnormal effervescence suggest contamination or undesirable fermentation by unwanted microorganisms.

Q.42 According to the Bronsted-Lowry concept, which of the following acts as a proton donor?

1. Water
2. Ammonia
3. Hydrochloric acid
4. Sodium chloride

Answer: Hydrochloric acid

Explanation: A Bronsted-Lowry acid is a proton donor. Hydrochloric acid donates H⁺ readily.

Q.43 How does studying consumer behaviour assist drug stores in managing their business?

1. By increasing advertising costs
2. By ignoring market trends
3. By helping to judge demands and calculate expenditure
4. By focusing only on wholesale buyers

Answer: By helping to judge demands and calculate expenditure

Explanation: Understanding consumer behaviour helps forecast demand, stock products wisely, and plan expenditure.

Q.44 Which of the following is a biological factor that can influence the design of a controlled drug delivery system?

1. Packaging material
2. Stirring speed
3. Tablet hardness
4. Enzyme activity

Answer: Enzyme activity

Explanation: Biological factors such as enzyme activity can influence drug degradation, release, and absorption.

Q.45 A patient with an exocrine pancreatic deficiency is prescribed pancreatin. Based on the information given, which feature makes pancreatin appropriate for this patient?

1. It provides enzymes (amylase, trypsin, lipase) needed for digestion.
2. It stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.
3. It directly increases appetite through central nervous system stimulation.
4. It acts as a gastric acid suppressant to reduce stomach acidity.

Answer: It provides enzymes (amylase, trypsin, lipase) needed for digestion.

Explanation: Pancreatin contains digestive enzymes that help replace deficient pancreatic exocrine secretion.

Q.46 What is the primary mechanism of action of Ticlopidine as an antiplatelet drug?

1. It increases platelet production in bone marrow.
2. It stimulates ADP release from platelets.
3. It directly activates thrombin receptors.
4. It blocks P2Y 11 type purinergic receptors on platelets and inhibits ADP-induced aggregation.

Answer: It blocks P2Y 11 type purinergic receptors on platelets and inhibits ADP-induced aggregation.

Explanation: Ticlopidine inhibits ADP-mediated platelet aggregation by blocking the platelet ADP receptor pathway. The receptor name in the option appears to have a typographical issue, but option 4 is the intended answer.

Q.47 Which product is commonly produced using recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology?

1. Vitamin C
2. Aspirin
3. Insulin
4. Ibuprofen

Answer: Insulin

Explanation: Human insulin is a classic example of a recombinant DNA product.

Q.48 Which term describes substances that can both donate and accept a proton in acid-base titrations?

1. Protogenic substances
2. Protophilic substances
3. Amphiprotic substances
4. Aprotic substances

Answer: Amphiprotic substances

Explanation: Amphiprotic substances can behave as either proton donors or proton acceptors.

Q.49 What type of mixtures can be effectively separated using a super centrifuge?

1. Liquid suspensions containing very fine solid particles
2. Dry powders with different particle sizes
3. Homogeneous gaseous mixtures
4. Single-phase liquid systems

Answer: Liquid suspensions containing very fine solid particles

Explanation: Super centrifuges are useful for separating very fine particles suspended in liquids and also for some liquid-liquid separations.

Q.50 Which statement best explains why oligomycin inhibits ATP synthesis in mitochondria?

1. It inhibits the adenine nucleotide carrier, preventing ADP supply
2. It binds to cytochrome oxidase and blocks electron transfer
3. It binds to ATP synthase and blocks proton channels, preventing proton re-entry into the matrix
4. It reacts with reduced cytochrome to inhibit oxygen binding

Answer: It binds to ATP synthase and blocks proton channels, preventing proton re-entry into the matrix

Explanation: Oligomycin blocks the F₀ portion of ATP synthase, stopping proton flow back into the matrix and preventing ATP synthesis.

Q.51 Which dietary fiber, when fermented by colonic bacteria, produces short-chain fatty acids beneficial for gut health?

1. Chitin
2. Inulin
3. Cellulose
4. Lignin

Answer: Inulin

Explanation: Inulin is a fermentable prebiotic fibre that yields short-chain fatty acids in the colon.

Q.52 Under ICH guidelines, clinical efficacy evaluation must include which of the following?

1. Labeling information
2. Evidence from well-designed human trials
3. Only animal study results
4. Results from stability testing only

Answer: Evidence from well-designed human trials

Explanation: Clinical efficacy must be supported by proper human clinical evidence, not only animal data or stability results.

Q.53 What is a disadvantage of suspensions when compared to solutions?

1. Suspensions require shaking before use to ensure uniformity of dose
2. Suspensions have faster absorption than solutions
3. Suspensions do not require containers
4. Suspensions are never used for insoluble drugs

Answer: Suspensions require shaking before use to ensure uniformity of dose

Explanation: Because the solid phase settles on standing, suspensions must be shaken to ensure a uniform dose.

Q.54 A manufacturer observes phase separation in an oil-in-water emulsion stored at room temperature. Which formulation adjustment should be considered to address this disadvantage?

1. Reducing the use of preservatives
2. Optimizing the concentration of emulsifying agents
3. Decreasing the drug particle size
4. Omitting flavoring agents

Answer: Optimizing the concentration of emulsifying agents

Explanation: Adjusting the type and concentration of emulsifying agent is a key step in improving emulsion stability.

Q.55 According to the Code of Pharmaceutical Ethics, which of the following is NOT permitted in advertising display materials for medicines by pharmacists?

1. Using the word ‘Cure’ in reference to an ailment
2. Displaying prices of medicines
3. Promoting a healthy lifestyle
4. Listing the pharmacist’s qualifications

Answer: Using the word ‘Cure’ in reference to an ailment

Explanation: The use of the word cure in medicine advertisements is not permitted because it can be misleading.

Q.56 Which of the following statements best describes a strong acid in acid-base equilibria?

1. Partially ionizes in water
2. Completely ionizes in water
3. Forms a strong conjugate base
4. Does not ionize in water

Answer: Completely ionizes in water

Explanation: A strong acid ionizes essentially completely in aqueous solution.

Q.57 What is the common functional group present in both aldehydes and ketones?

1. Hydroxyl group
2. Carbonyl group
3. Amino group
4. Carboxyl group

Answer: Carbonyl group

Explanation: Both aldehydes and ketones contain the carbonyl functional group, C=O.

Q.58 What is the most common cause of acute myocardial infarction?

1. Viral infection
2. Bacterial infection
3. Hypertension
4. Atherosclerosis

Answer: Atherosclerosis

Explanation: Most acute myocardial infarctions result from atherosclerotic plaque rupture followed by thrombus formation in a coronary artery.

Q.59 Consumer buying behaviour is referred to which of the following process?

1. Selecting, using, or disposing products to satisfy needs and desires
2. Storing products for future use
3. Transporting products to retail stores
4. Manufacturing products for sale

Answer: Selecting, using, or disposing products to satisfy needs and desires

Explanation: Consumer buying behaviour covers how people select, buy, use, and dispose of products to satisfy needs and wants.

Q.60 What is the primary function of dietary fiber in human digestive system?

1. It provides energy.
2. It acts as a vitamin supplement.
3. It increases cholesterol absorption.
4. It promotes healthy bowel movements.

Answer: It promotes healthy bowel movements.

Explanation: Dietary fibre mainly supports bowel regularity and healthy gastrointestinal function.

Q.61 What is the main physiological consequence of an acute myocardial infarction?

1. Decreased contractility of heart muscle
2. Enhanced oxygen delivery
3. Increased cardiac output
4. Improved electrical conduction

Answer: Decreased contractility of heart muscle

Explanation: Infarction damages myocardium, reducing its ability to contract effectively.

Q.62 A pharmacist is using the British Pharmacopoeia to look up drugs. Based on the context, which classification is most likely being used?

1. Botanical classification
2. Therapeutic classification
3. Pharmacodynamic classification
4. Alphabetical classification

Answer: Alphabetical classification

Explanation: Pharmacopoeias commonly arrange monographs alphabetically for easy reference.

Q.63 A pharmacist is trying to explain how a drug works in the body. Which branch of pharmacology is most relevant to this explanation?

1. Anatomy
2. Pharmaceutics
3. Pharmacodynamics
4. Biochemistry

Answer: Pharmacodynamics

Explanation: Pharmacodynamics explains what the drug does to the body, including mechanism of action.

Q.64 Which scenario best illustrates a practical challenge when using alphabetical classification for large pharmacopoeias?

1. Grouping drugs by plant parts
2. Classifying drugs by their pharmacological action
3. Assigning drugs by chemical structure
4. Difficulty in locating a drug if its spelling is unknown

Answer: Difficulty in locating a drug if its spelling is unknown

Explanation: Alphabetical systems are convenient only when the exact or near-exact name is known.

Q.65 According to ICH guidelines, what is a primary purpose of conducting stability testing (Q1A-Q1F) on herbal drugs?

1. To ensure maintenance of quality and effectiveness throughout the shelf life
2. To establish manufacturing costs
3. To determine the geographical origin of the plant material
4. To identify traditional uses of the herb

Answer: To ensure maintenance of quality and effectiveness throughout the shelf life

Explanation: Stability testing ensures the product remains safe, effective, and of acceptable quality throughout its shelf life.

Q.66 How does the construction of a super centrifuge minimize emulsification during separation of two immiscible liquids?

1. By using a rough, textured interior surface to break up droplets.
2. By having a smooth, high-speed rotating bowl and gentle feed entry to reduce turbulence.
3. By heating the mixture to decrease viscosity.
4. By introducing air bubbles to agitate the mixture.

Answer: By having a smooth, high-speed rotating bowl and gentle feed entry to reduce turbulence.

Explanation: A smooth bowl and gentle introduction of the feed reduce turbulence and therefore reduce unwanted emulsification.

Q.67 Which of the following best describes the content required in an efficacy dossier under EU guidelines for herbal products?

1. Manufacturing site inspection reports
2. Adverse event reporting forms only
3. Certificates of analysis only
4. Clinical data supporting therapeutic claims

Answer: Clinical data supporting therapeutic claims

Explanation: An efficacy dossier is meant to support therapeutic claims, so clinical evidence is central.

Q.68 According to the earlier concept, what taste is characteristic of an acid?

1. Salty
2. Sour
3. Sweet
4. Bitter

Answer: Sour

Explanation: Acids are characteristically sour in taste.

Q.69 Which of the following is not a natural coloring agent used in monophasic liquid dosage forms?

1. Caramel
2. Coal-tar
3. Cochineal
4. Carotenoids

Answer: Coal-tar

Explanation: Coal-tar dyes are synthetic coloring agents, unlike caramel, cochineal, and carotenoids.

Q.70 In acid-base titrations, which indicator would you select for titrating a weak acid with a strong base and why?

1. Bromothymol blue, because it changes color at pH 6.
2. Methyl orange, because it changes color at pH 4.
3. Litmus, because it changes color in all types of titrations.
4. Phenolphthalein, because its endpoint pH matches the equivalence point of the titration.

Answer: Phenolphthalein, because its endpoint pH matches the equivalence point of the titration.

Explanation: In a weak acid-strong base titration, the equivalence point lies in the alkaline range, so phenolphthalein is the suitable indicator.