MCQ Quiz-Biotechnologies

MCQ Quiz: Biotechnologies

by

Biotechnology harnesses cellular and biomolecular processes to develop technologies and products that help improve our lives and the health of our planet. For the pharmaceutical industry, it has been a revolutionary force, leading to the creation of advanced therapies. For PharmD students, understanding biotechnologies like recombinant DNA, CRISPR, and monoclonal antibody production is no longer optional; it is essential for comprehending the next generation of medicines you will dispense and manage.

1. What is the primary purpose of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique in biotechnology?

  • To separate DNA fragments based on their size
  • To determine the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA strand
  • To amplify a specific segment of DNA exponentially
  • To insert a gene into a plasmid vector


Answer: To amplify a specific segment of DNA exponentially

2. In recombinant DNA technology, which enzyme is responsible for “pasting” a gene of interest into a plasmid vector?

  • DNA Polymerase
  • Helicase
  • DNA Ligase
  • Restriction Endonuclease


Answer: DNA Ligase

3. Which of the following is a common mammalian cell line used for the large-scale production of recombinant proteins like monoclonal antibodies?

  • Escherichia coli (E. coli)
  • Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast)
  • Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO) cells
  • Bacillus subtilis


Answer: Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO) cells

4. The CRISPR-Cas9 system, a powerful gene-editing tool, was originally discovered in bacteria as a form of:

  • Metabolic pathway
  • Adaptive immune system against viruses
  • Photosynthesis
  • Cellular respiration


Answer: Adaptive immune system against viruses

5. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific therapeutic agents. They are produced from:

  • A diverse mixture of immune cells
  • A single clone of a B-cell, ensuring all antibodies are identical
  • Plant extracts
  • Chemical synthesis from individual amino acids


Answer: A single clone of a B-cell, ensuring all antibodies are identical

6. Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to:

  • Sequence a DNA molecule
  • Separate macromolecules like DNA, RNA, and proteins based on size and charge
  • Amplify a specific DNA sequence
  • Insert DNA into a host cell


Answer: Separate macromolecules like DNA, RNA, and proteins based on size and charge

7. “Gene pharming” refers to the technology of:

  • Using pharmaceuticals to alter genes in a patient
  • Using transgenic animals or plants to produce therapeutic proteins
  • Mining for genes in different organisms
  • A database of pharmaceutical products


Answer: Using transgenic animals or plants to produce therapeutic proteins

8. What is the role of a vector in gene cloning?

  • To cut the DNA at a specific site
  • To carry the foreign DNA into a host cell
  • To provide the energy for the reaction
  • To separate the DNA fragments by size


Answer: To carry the foreign DNA into a host cell

9. Why is E. coli a commonly used host for producing simple recombinant proteins?

  • It performs complex post-translational modifications
  • It grows slowly and is expensive to culture
  • It has a rapid growth rate and well-understood genetics
  • It is a eukaryotic organism


Answer: It has a rapid growth rate and well-understood genetics

10. RNA interference (RNAi) is a mechanism that can be harnessed for therapeutic purposes to:

  • Increase the production of a target protein
  • Silence a specific gene by degrading its mRNA transcript
  • Repair mutations in DNA
  • Cause random mutations in the genome


Answer: Silence a specific gene by degrading its mRNA transcript

11. A key advantage of using mammalian cell cultures over bacterial systems for producing complex human proteins is that mammalian cells can:

  • Grow much faster than bacteria
  • Perform necessary post-translational modifications, like glycosylation
  • Survive in much harsher temperature conditions
  • Be cultured without the need for sterile technique


Answer: Perform necessary post-translational modifications, like glycosylation

12. In the context of gene therapy, what does “in vivo” gene therapy mean?

  • Therapeutic genes are delivered directly into the patient’s body
  • Cells are removed from the patient, modified in the lab, and then returned to the patient
  • The therapy is tested in animals before humans
  • The gene is delivered using a non-viral method


Answer: Therapeutic genes are delivered directly into the patient’s body

13. The purpose of a “selectable marker” (e.g., an antibiotic resistance gene) on a plasmid is to:

  • Make the plasmid visible to the naked eye
  • Allow researchers to identify which host cells have successfully taken up the plasmid
  • Increase the rate of protein production
  • Ensure the plasmid is cut at the correct location


Answer: Allow researchers to identify which host cells have successfully taken up the plasmid

14. What are antisense oligonucleotides designed to do?

  • Bind to a specific mRNA sequence and block its translation into protein
  • Cut DNA at a specific site
  • Amplify DNA for analysis
  • Serve as a template for protein synthesis


Answer: Bind to a specific mRNA sequence and block its translation into protein

15. A “transgenic plant” is one that:

  • Has been grown in a different country
  • Is resistant to all known pests
  • Contains a gene or genes that have been artificially inserted
  • Has been created through traditional cross-pollination only


Answer: Contains a gene or genes that have been artificially inserted

16. The Western blot technique is used to detect:

  • Specific DNA sequences
  • Specific RNA sequences
  • Specific proteins in a sample
  • The presence of lipids in a cell


Answer: Specific proteins in a sample

17. What is a primary challenge in developing effective viral vectors for gene therapy?

  • Ensuring the vector can produce its own proteins
  • Avoiding an immune response against the vector in the patient
  • Making the virus more pathogenic
  • Finding a virus that is large enough to be seen with a microscope


Answer: Avoiding an immune response against the vector in the patient

18. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are derived from:

  • Embryos
  • Umbilical cord blood
  • Differentiated adult cells that have been reprogrammed to an embryonic-like state
  • Fetal tissue


Answer: Differentiated adult cells that have been reprogrammed to an embryonic-like state

19. In a PCR cycle, what is the purpose of the heating step at ~95°C?

  • To allow the primers to anneal to the DNA
  • To denature the double-stranded DNA into single strands
  • To allow the polymerase to extend the DNA
  • To ligate the newly formed DNA fragments


Answer: To denature the double-stranded DNA into single strands

20. The term “biosimilar” refers to a biological product that is:

  • A chemically synthesized small molecule drug
  • Approved based on showing it is highly similar to an already-approved biological product
  • Genetically identical to the reference product
  • A generic version of a small molecule drug


Answer: Approved based on showing it is highly similar to an already-approved biological product

21. What is the function of the “guide RNA” in the CRISPR-Cas9 system?

  • It cuts the target DNA
  • It directs the Cas9 enzyme to a specific sequence in the genome
  • It repairs the break in the DNA
  • It acts as a template for protein synthesis


Answer: It directs the Cas9 enzyme to a specific sequence in the genome

22. Exosomes are small extracellular vesicles that have therapeutic potential because they can:

  • Transport bioactive molecules like proteins and RNA between cells
  • Integrate their own DNA into the host genome
  • Replicate independently within the bloodstream
  • Cause widespread inflammation


Answer: Transport bioactive molecules like proteins and RNA between cells

23. Hybridoma technology is a method used to produce:

  • Recombinant proteins
  • Transgenic animals
  • Monoclonal antibodies
  • DNA vaccines


Answer: Monoclonal antibodies

24. The development of mRNA vaccines relies on which core biological process?

  • DNA replication
  • Reverse transcription
  • Protein translation by the host cell’s ribosomes
  • Gene editing


Answer: Protein translation by the host cell’s ribosomes

25. A major advantage of using yeast (S. cerevisiae) over bacteria for protein expression is that yeast:

  • Is a prokaryote
  • Cannot be grown in large fermenters
  • Is a eukaryote and can perform some post-translational modifications
  • Does not have a cell wall


Answer: Is a eukaryote and can perform some post-translational modifications

26. Which step in PCR involves lowering the temperature to allow primers to bind to the template DNA?

  • Denaturation
  • Annealing
  • Extension
  • Ligation


Answer: Annealing

27. What is a potential ethical concern related to gene editing in humans?

  • The high cost of the technology
  • The potential for off-target effects and unintended mutations
  • The rapid speed at which it can be performed
  • The use of bacterial enzymes


Answer: The potential for off-target effects and unintended mutations

28. High-throughput screening (HTS) is a drug discovery process used to:

  • Rapidly test thousands of chemical compounds for biological activity
  • Manually synthesize a single, complex drug molecule
  • Conduct late-stage clinical trials
  • Formulate a finished drug product


Answer: Rapidly test thousands of chemical compounds for biological activity

29. The suffix “-mab” in a drug name (e.g., adalimumab) indicates that the drug is a:

  • Small molecule inhibitor
  • Monoclonal antibody
  • Recombinant enzyme
  • Synthetic peptide


Answer: Monoclonal antibody

30. What is a primary difference between a traditional vaccine and a DNA or mRNA vaccine?

  • Traditional vaccines always provide lifelong immunity.
  • DNA/mRNA vaccines use genetic material to prompt the body to make the antigen itself.
  • Traditional vaccines do not stimulate an immune response.
  • DNA/mRNA vaccines are made from live, attenuated viruses.


Answer: DNA/mRNA vaccines use genetic material to prompt the body to make the antigen itself.

31. In molecular cloning, a “blue-white screen” is used to:

  • Measure the size of the DNA insert
  • Differentiate host cells that contain a recombinant plasmid from those with a non-recombinant plasmid
  • Amplify the DNA sequence
  • Purify the final protein product


Answer: Differentiate host cells that contain a recombinant plasmid from those with a non-recombinant plasmid

32. The ability of stem cells to differentiate into many different cell types is known as:

  • Pluripotency
  • Homeostasis
  • Apoptosis
  • Necrosis


Answer: Pluripotency

33. What does the “Cas9” part of the CRISPR-Cas9 system refer to?

  • A guide RNA molecule
  • A protein that functions as a DNA-cutting enzyme (a nuclease)
  • A type of plasmid vector
  • A selectable marker


Answer: A protein that functions as a DNA-cutting enzyme (a nuclease)

34. A major challenge for RNA-based therapeutics like siRNA is:

  • Their extreme stability in the bloodstream
  • Their ability to easily cross cell membranes
  • Their rapid degradation by nucleases and difficulty in delivery to target cells
  • Their tendency to cause permanent genetic changes


Answer: Their rapid degradation by nucleases and difficulty in delivery to target cells

35. A Southern blot is a laboratory technique used to detect:

  • A specific protein sequence
  • A specific RNA sequence
  • A specific DNA sequence
  • A specific lipid


Answer: A specific DNA sequence

36. Zinc-finger nucleases (ZFNs) and TALENs are earlier forms of what type of biotechnology?

  • DNA sequencing
  • Protein purification
  • Genome editing
  • PCR amplification


Answer: Genome editing

37. The process of inserting a functional gene to correct the effect of a defective gene is the basis of:

  • Gene therapy
  • Pharmacogenomics
  • Monoclonal antibody therapy
  • Small molecule drug therapy


Answer: Gene therapy

38. What is the role of Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?

  • It is a heat-stable DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA strands
  • It denatures the DNA template at high temperatures
  • It acts as the primer for DNA synthesis
  • It separates the PCR products via gel electrophoresis


Answer: It is a heat-stable DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA strands

39. A “knockout” mouse is a transgenic mouse in which:

  • A specific gene has been inactivated or “knocked out”
  • A foreign gene has been added
  • The mouse’s immune system has been enhanced
  • The mouse has been trained to perform a specific task


Answer: A specific gene has been inactivated or “knocked out”

40. The use of liposomes or nanoparticles in drug delivery is a technology primarily designed to:

  • Increase a drug’s bitter taste
  • Improve the stability, solubility, and targeted delivery of a therapeutic agent
  • Ensure the drug is eliminated from the body as quickly as possible
  • Make the drug visible on an X-ray


Answer: Improve the stability, solubility, and targeted delivery of a therapeutic agent

41. Which of the following is NOT a component needed for a PCR reaction?

  • DNA template
  • DNA polymerase
  • Primers
  • DNA ligase


Answer: DNA ligase

42. The term “bioreactor” refers to:

  • A device or system used to grow cells or microorganisms for the production of biologicals
  • A computer program that models biological reactions
  • A natural products screening library
  • A gene editing tool


Answer: A device or system used to grow cells or microorganisms for the production of biologicals

43. One advantage of viral vectors for gene therapy over non-viral methods is that they are generally:

  • Less likely to cause an immune response
  • Cheaper to produce
  • More efficient at entering cells and delivering genes
  • Easier to handle and store


Answer: More efficient at entering cells and delivering genes

44. In the production of a biopharmaceutical, “downstream processing” refers to:

  • The initial cloning of the gene of interest
  • The growth of the host cells in a fermenter
  • The extraction, purification, and formulation of the final product
  • The design of the clinical trial protocol


Answer: The extraction, purification, and formulation of the final product

45. Pharmacogenomics is a field that uses biotechnology to:

  • Create new infectious diseases
  • Understand how an individual’s genetic makeup affects their response to drugs
  • Develop new flavors for liquid medications
  • Study the history of pharmacy


Answer: Understand how an individual’s genetic makeup affects their response to drugs

46. The first human therapeutic protein produced using recombinant DNA technology was:

  • Erythropoietin
  • Insulin
  • Growth hormone
  • Factor VIII


Answer: Insulin

47. A “cDNA library” is a collection of DNA fragments that have been generated from:

  • The entire genome of an organism
  • mRNA molecules using reverse transcriptase
  • The protein content of a cell
  • Plasmids from a bacterial culture


Answer: mRNA molecules using reverse transcriptase

48. What is a key safety consideration during the development of cell-based therapies?

  • Ensuring the cells are of the correct color
  • The risk of the cells becoming contaminated or forming tumors after administration
  • The ability of the cells to survive without oxygen
  • The cost of the growth medium


Answer: The risk of the cells becoming contaminated or forming tumors after administration

49. An ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a common biotechnological tool used for:

  • Amplifying DNA
  • Cutting DNA
  • Detecting and quantifying a substance, such as a protein or antibody
  • Sequencing a genome


Answer: Detecting and quantifying a substance, such as a protein or antibody

50. The ultimate goal of applying biotechnologies in pharmacy is to:

  • Replace all small molecule drugs
  • Create more personalized and effective medicines
  • Make the process of drug development more complicated
  • Focus only on treating rare genetic diseases


Answer: Create more personalized and effective medicines

Leave a Comment