AIDS MCQs With Answer

AIDS MCQs With Answer for B. Pharm students: This concise, Student-friendly post covers HIV/AIDS essentials including pathogenesis, diagnosis, antiretroviral therapy, drug mechanisms, resistance, drug interactions, and prevention strategies. Tailored for pharmacy undergraduates, it emphasizes pharmacology, therapeutic monitoring, adverse effects, and clinical decision points relevant to antiretroviral drugs (NRTIs, NNRTIs, PIs, INSTIs, entry inhibitors). The guide helps strengthen exam preparation and clinical understanding with targeted practice questions and clear answers. Keywords: AIDS MCQs with answer, B. Pharm students, HIV pharmacology, antiretroviral therapy, diagnosis, prevention. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which virus is the primary cause of AIDS worldwide?

• Human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1)
• Human immunodeficiency virus type 2 (HIV-2)
• Human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV)
• Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1)

Q2. What is the main cellular receptor HIV uses to enter CD4+ T cells?

• CCR5 chemokine receptor
• CD8 receptor
• CD4 receptor
• CXCR4 chemokine receptor

Correct Answer: CD4 receptor

Q3. Which viral glycoprotein mediates attachment of HIV to the CD4 receptor?

• gp120
• gp41
• p24
• Reverse transcriptase

Correct Answer: gp120

Q4. Which enzyme converts viral RNA into DNA during HIV replication?

• Reverse transcriptase
• Integrase
• Protease
• RNA polymerase II

Correct Answer: Reverse transcriptase

Q5. What is the primary action of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)?

• Cause chain termination during viral DNA synthesis
• Block viral entry into host cells
• Inhibit viral protease activity
• Prevent integration of viral DNA into host genome

Correct Answer: Cause chain termination during viral DNA synthesis

Q6. Which drug is a CCR5 antagonist used as an entry inhibitor for HIV?

• Maraviroc
• Enfuvirtide
• Dolutegravir
• Lopinavir

Correct Answer: Maraviroc

Q7. Enfuvirtide (T-20) is classified as which type of antiretroviral?

• Fusion inhibitor
• Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
• Protease inhibitor
• Integrase inhibitor

Correct Answer: Fusion inhibitor

Q8. Which class of antiretrovirals binds directly to reverse transcriptase at an allosteric site?

• Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
• Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
• Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)
• Protease inhibitors (PIs)

Correct Answer: Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

Q9. Which enzyme is targeted by protease inhibitors in HIV therapy?

• HIV protease that cleaves polyproteins into functional proteins
• Reverse transcriptase that transcribes RNA to DNA
• Integrase that inserts viral DNA into host genome
• RNAse H

Correct Answer: HIV protease that cleaves polyproteins into functional proteins

Q10. Which antiretroviral class does dolutegravir belong to?

• Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)
• Protease inhibitors (PIs)
• Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
• Entry inhibitors

Correct Answer: Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)

Q11. What is the preferred initial ART regimen recommended in many guidelines for most adults?

• Two NRTIs plus an INSTI
• One NRTI plus one NNRTI
• Three PIs alone
• Monotherapy with an NNRTI

Correct Answer: Two NRTIs plus an INSTI

Q12. Which of the following is a common fixed-dose combination used in PrEP?

• Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) + Emtricitabine (FTC)
• Lamivudine + Abacavir
• Zidovudine + Nevirapine
• Darunavir + Ritonavir

Correct Answer: Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) + Emtricitabine (FTC)

Q13. Which laboratory test is most sensitive for monitoring the effectiveness of ART?

• HIV viral load (plasma HIV RNA)
• CD4+ T-cell count
• ELISA antibody test
• Western blot

Correct Answer: HIV viral load (plasma HIV RNA)

Q14. Which marker best indicates immune status and risk of opportunistic infections in HIV patients?

• CD4+ T-cell count
• HIV viral load
• p24 antigen level
• C-reactive protein

Correct Answer: CD4+ T-cell count

Q15. What is the window period in HIV testing?

• Time between infection and detectable markers (antibodies/antigen)
• Time for ART to reduce viral load below detection
• Duration of opportunistic infections
• Interval between CD4 tests

Correct Answer: Time between infection and detectable markers (antibodies/antigen)

Q16. Which prophylaxis is recommended when CD4 count falls below 200 cells/mm3 to prevent Pneumocystis pneumonia?

• Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
• Acyclovir
• Fluconazole
• Azithromycin

Correct Answer: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

Q17. Abacavir hypersensitivity is strongly associated with which genetic marker?

• HLA-B*5701
• HLA-B*1502
• CYP2B6 polymorphism
• CCR5 delta32 mutation

Correct Answer: HLA-B*5701

Q18. Which drug requires dose adjustment in severe renal impairment due to renal elimination?

• Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)
• Efavirenz
• Nevirapine
• Dolutegravir

Correct Answer: Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)

Q19. Which co-infection requires special consideration because rifampicin interacts with many antiretrovirals?

• Tuberculosis (TB)
• Malaria
• Influenza
• HSV infection

Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)

Q20. Which antiretroviral is most associated with hyperlipidemia and metabolic disturbances?

• Protease inhibitors (e.g., lopinavir/ritonavir)
• Lamivudine
• Emtricitabine
• Zidovudine

Correct Answer: Protease inhibitors (e.g., lopinavir/ritonavir)

Q21. What is immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)?

• Worsening inflammatory response after ART initiation due to recovering immunity
• Drug toxicity from protease inhibitors
• Primary HIV infection symptoms
• Late-stage AIDS dementia

Correct Answer: Worsening inflammatory response after ART initiation due to recovering immunity

Q22. Which diagnostic test directly detects HIV genetic material and is used for early diagnosis?

• HIV RNA PCR (Nucleic acid test)
• Antibody ELISA
• Western blot
• p24 antigen immunoassay only

Correct Answer: HIV RNA PCR (Nucleic acid test)

Q23. Which opportunistic infection commonly occurs at CD4 counts below 50 cells/mm3?

• Disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
• Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
• Oral candidiasis
• Herpes zoster

Correct Answer: Disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

Q24. What is the mechanism of action of integrase inhibitors?

• Block insertion of viral DNA into host genome by inhibiting integrase
• Prevent gp120 binding to CD4
• Inhibit viral protease cleavage
• Cause chain termination of viral DNA

Correct Answer: Block insertion of viral DNA into host genome by inhibiting integrase

Q25. Which test is commonly used as a confirmatory test after a positive HIV screening ELISA?

• Western blot or an HIV-1/2 differentiation immunoassay
• CD4 count
• Viral culture
• Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

Correct Answer: Western blot or an HIV-1/2 differentiation immunoassay

Q26. Which antiretroviral is known for central nervous system adverse effects like vivid dreams and dizziness?

• Efavirenz
• Zidovudine
• Lopinavir
• Raltegravir

Correct Answer: Efavirenz

Q27. Which mutation in CCR5 confers resistance to certain strains of HIV?

• CCR5 delta32 deletion
• HLA-B*5701
• CYP3A4*22
• CXCR4 T127A

Correct Answer: CCR5 delta32 deletion

Q28. What is the main goal of antiretroviral therapy?

• Achieve and maintain viral suppression to improve immune function and reduce morbidity
• Eradicate latent HIV reservoirs completely
• Treat opportunistic infections only
• Increase HIV transmission

Correct Answer: Achieve and maintain viral suppression to improve immune function and reduce morbidity

Q29. Which laboratory parameter should be monitored when a patient is on tenofovir therapy?

• Renal function (serum creatinine, eGFR)
• Serum amylase
• Thyroid function tests
• Coagulation profile

Correct Answer: Renal function (serum creatinine, eGFR)

Q30. Which antiretroviral is contraindicated in pregnancy due to high teratogenic risk historically (noting newer guidance may vary)?

• Efavirenz (historical concerns in first trimester)
• Zidovudine
• Lamivudine
• Tenofovir

Correct Answer: Efavirenz (historical concerns in first trimester)

Q31. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for occupational exposure should ideally be started within what time frame?

• Within 72 hours
• Within 7 days
• Within 24 hours only
• Only after seroconversion

Correct Answer: Within 72 hours

Q32. Which HIV test component appears earliest after infection and can be detected before antibodies?

• p24 antigen
• HIV-specific IgG antibodies
• Western blot bands
• Anti-HIV IgM only

Correct Answer: p24 antigen

Q33. Which antiretroviral drug requires HLA-B*5701 testing prior to initiation?

• Abacavir
• Nevirapine
• Ritonavir
• Dolutegravir

Correct Answer: Abacavir

Q34. What is a major clinical concern with long-term zidovudine therapy?

• Bone marrow suppression leading to anemia
• Severe neuropsychiatric effects
• Marked renal toxicity
• Hyperglycemia

Correct Answer: Bone marrow suppression leading to anemia

Q35. Which strategy reduces mother-to-child transmission of HIV most effectively?

• Maternal antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy and delivery plus neonatal prophylaxis
• Cesarean section alone without ART
• Formula feeding only without maternal ART
• Delaying ART until after delivery

Correct Answer: Maternal antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy and delivery plus neonatal prophylaxis

Q36. Which test is preferred for early infant diagnosis of HIV (below 18 months)?

• HIV DNA/RNA PCR
• Antibody-based rapid test
• CD4 count
• Western blot

Correct Answer: HIV DNA/RNA PCR

Q37. Which opportunistic infection prophylaxis is recommended when CD4 <50 cells/mm3?

• Azithromycin for MAC prophylaxis
• Fluconazole for cryptococcus routinely
• Valacyclovir for HSV prophylaxis routinely
• Isavuconazole for aspergillus prevention

Correct Answer: Azithromycin for MAC prophylaxis

Q38. Viral resistance to NRTIs commonly occurs via which mechanism?

• Mutations in reverse transcriptase reducing drug incorporation
• Increased drug efflux from virions
• Alteration of gp120 binding
• Protease gene cleavage changes

Correct Answer: Mutations in reverse transcriptase reducing drug incorporation

Q39. Therapeutic drug monitoring is most useful for which antiretroviral class?

• Protease inhibitors
• NRTIs
• NNRTIs
• INSTIs

Correct Answer: Protease inhibitors

Q40. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with protease inhibitors boosted with ritonavir?

• Drug-drug interactions via CYP3A4 inhibition
• Severe thrombocytopenia
• Ototoxicity
• Pancreatic insufficiency only

Correct Answer: Drug-drug interactions via CYP3A4 inhibition

Q41. Which of the following is TRUE about HIV-2 compared to HIV-1?

• HIV-2 generally has lower transmissibility and slower disease progression
• HIV-2 is more common globally than HIV-1
• HIV-2 is resistant to all NRTIs
• HIV-2 uses CD8 receptor for entry

Correct Answer: HIV-2 generally has lower transmissibility and slower disease progression

Q42. Which antiretroviral requires acid for optimal absorption and can interact with proton pump inhibitors?

• Atazanavir
• Tenofovir
• Lamivudine
• Raltegravir

Correct Answer: Atazanavir

Q43. What does an undetectable viral load mean in terms of transmission risk?

• Undetectable equals untransmittable (U=U) for sexual transmission when sustained
• Virus cannot be transmitted by any route
• Patient no longer needs ART
• CD4 count is normal regardless of duration

Correct Answer: Undetectable equals untransmittable (U=U) for sexual transmission when sustained

Q44. Which laboratory assay can detect both HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and p24 antigen in a single test?

• Fourth-generation HIV immunoassay
• First-generation ELISA
• Western blot only
• RNA PCR only

Correct Answer: Fourth-generation HIV immunoassay

Q45. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of advanced AIDS?

• Opportunistic infections such as PCP, MAC, and cryptococcal meningitis
• Mild transient fever only
• Asymptomatic lymphadenopathy only
• Acute influenza-like illness only

Correct Answer: Opportunistic infections such as PCP, MAC, and cryptococcal meningitis

Q46. Which antiretroviral commonly causes lipodystrophy and fat redistribution?

• Protease inhibitors and some older NRTIs (e.g., stavudine)
• Lamivudine alone
• Maraviroc only
• Dolutegravir exclusively

Correct Answer: Protease inhibitors and some older NRTIs (e.g., stavudine)

Q47. Which parameter indicates virologic failure on ART?

• Persistent detectable viral load despite adherence and sufficient time on therapy
• Transient CD4 drop only
• Negative resistance testing
• Undetectable viral load

Correct Answer: Persistent detectable viral load despite adherence and sufficient time on therapy

Q48. Which drug pair is contraindicated due to high risk of severe drug interactions via CYP3A4 induction?

• Rifampicin with protease inhibitors
• Tenofovir with lamivudine
• Dolutegravir with abacavir
• Emtricitabine with zidovudine

Correct Answer: Rifampicin with protease inhibitors

Q49. What role does therapeutic education and adherence counseling play in HIV therapy?

• Essential to maintain viral suppression and prevent resistance
• Unnecessary if viral load is undetectable initially
• Only required for patients on mono-therapy
• Only affects CD4 counts, not viral load

Correct Answer: Essential to maintain viral suppression and prevent resistance

Q50. Which public health strategy reduces HIV incidence besides ART and PrEP?

• Comprehensive harm reduction (needle programs), testing, condom distribution, and treatment as prevention
• Only isolation of infected individuals
• Sole reliance on antibody screening without linkage to care
• Stopping all antenatal screening programs

Correct Answer: Comprehensive harm reduction (needle programs), testing, condom distribution, and treatment as prevention

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