Structure and functions of pituitary gland MCQs With Answer

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Structure and functions of pituitary gland MCQs With Answer — The pituitary gland, a small but vital endocrine organ at the base of the brain, integrates hypothalamic signals and secretes hormones that regulate growth, metabolism, reproduction and fluid balance. B. Pharm students should grasp anterior (adenohypophysis) and posterior (neurohypophysis) anatomy, cell types, hypothalamo‑hypophyseal portal circulation, hormone synthesis (GH, ACTH, TSH, PRL, LH, FSH, ADH, oxytocin) and pharmacological modulators. Clinical correlations — acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, prolactinoma, diabetes insipidus — and drug actions (dopamine agonists, somatostatin analogs, desmopressin) are essential for practice. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which embryologic structure gives rise to the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)?

  • Neural tube of diencephalon
  • Rathke’s pouch (oral ectoderm)
  • Notochord
  • Meninges

Correct Answer: Rathke’s pouch (oral ectoderm)

Q2. Which artery primarily supplies the infundibulum and anterior pituitary via the portal capillary system?

  • Anterior cerebral artery
  • Superior hypophyseal artery
  • Middle meningeal artery
  • Inferior hypophyseal artery

Correct Answer: Superior hypophyseal artery

Q3. Which pituitary cell type is the main source of growth hormone (GH)?

  • Thyrotrophs
  • Somatotrophs
  • Lactotrophs
  • Corticotrophs

Correct Answer: Somatotrophs

Q4. Which hypothalamic hormone stimulates prolactin secretion?

  • Dopamine
  • Somatostatin
  • Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
  • Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Correct Answer: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

Q5. Which statement best describes posterior pituitary hormone origin?

  • ADH and oxytocin synthesized in pituitary pars distalis
  • ADH and oxytocin synthesized in hypothalamic nuclei and transported to posterior pituitary
  • Posterior pituitary synthesizes peptide and steroid hormones
  • Posterior pituitary arises from oral ectoderm

Correct Answer: ADH and oxytocin synthesized in hypothalamic nuclei and transported to posterior pituitary

Q6. Which hormone increases hepatic IGF-1 production and mediates many growth-promoting effects?

  • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • Growth hormone (GH)
  • Prolactin (PRL)

Correct Answer: Growth hormone (GH)

Q7. Which glandular hormone is directly derived from POMC cleavage in corticotrophs?

  • Insulin
  • Aldosterone
  • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  • Thyroxine (T4)

Correct Answer: Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Q8. Which feedback loop normally suppresses pituitary ACTH secretion?

  • Negative feedback by cortisol on hypothalamus and pituitary
  • Positive feedback by ACTH on the pituitary
  • Negative feedback by GH on hypothalamus
  • Positive feedback by TSH on thyroid

Correct Answer: Negative feedback by cortisol on hypothalamus and pituitary

Q9. Which receptor family mediates growth hormone receptor signaling in target tissues?

  • G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)
  • Tyrosine kinase receptor (insulin receptor family)
  • JAK-STAT-associated receptor (cytokine receptor family)
  • Nuclear steroid receptor

Correct Answer: JAK-STAT-associated receptor (cytokine receptor family)

Q10. Which pituitary hormone is primarily inhibited by hypothalamic dopamine?

  • TSH
  • Prolactin (PRL)
  • ACTH
  • GH

Correct Answer: Prolactin (PRL)

Q11. A patient with a prolactinoma is most likely to present with which clinical feature in women?

  • Galactorrhea and amenorrhea
  • Polydipsia and polyuria
  • Excess growth of hands and face after puberty
  • Weight loss and heat intolerance

Correct Answer: Galactorrhea and amenorrhea

Q12. Which diagnostic test helps distinguish central from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

  • Serum TSH measurement
  • Water deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration
  • Oral glucose tolerance test
  • Dexamethasone suppression test

Correct Answer: Water deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration

Q13. Which drug is a long-acting vasopressin V2 receptor agonist used to treat central diabetes insipidus?

  • Vasopressin (ADH)
  • Desmopressin (DDAVP)
  • Tolvaptan
  • Spironolactone

Correct Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

Q14. Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary to constrict blood vessels via V1 receptors?

  • Oxytocin
  • Vasopressin (ADH)
  • Prolactin
  • Thyrotropin

Correct Answer: Vasopressin (ADH)

Q15. Which pituitary adenoma most commonly causes Cushing disease?

  • Prolactin-secreting adenoma
  • GH-secreting adenoma
  • ACTH-secreting corticotroph adenoma
  • TSH-secreting adenoma

Correct Answer: ACTH-secreting corticotroph adenoma

Q16. Which pharmacologic agent is first-line medical therapy for prolactinomas?

  • Octreotide
  • Cabergoline
  • Ketoconazole
  • Pegvisomant

Correct Answer: Cabergoline

Q17. Which histological classification groups somatotrophs and lactotrophs based on staining properties?

  • Chromophobes and chromophils
  • Chief cells and oxyphil cells
  • Granulosa and theca cells
  • Follicular and parafollicular cells

Correct Answer: Chromophobes and chromophils

Q18. Which test is most useful for assessing excess GH secretion in adults suspected of acromegaly?

  • Fasting blood glucose
  • Serum IGF-1 level and oral glucose suppression test
  • Thyroid uptake scan
  • Serum prolactin only

Correct Answer: Serum IGF-1 level and oral glucose suppression test

Q19. Which drug class acts by mimicking somatostatin and is used to suppress GH and TSH secretion?

  • Somatostatin analogs (e.g., octreotide)
  • Dopamine agonists (e.g., bromocriptine)
  • Vasopressin antagonists (e.g., tolvaptan)
  • Glucocorticoids

Correct Answer: Somatostatin analogs (e.g., octreotide)

Q20. Which feature distinguishes secondary (pituitary) hypothyroidism from primary hypothyroidism?

  • Elevated TSH with low T4
  • Low or inappropriately normal TSH with low T4
  • High T3 and T4 levels
  • Presence of anti-thyroid antibodies only

Correct Answer: Low or inappropriately normal TSH with low T4

Q21. The hypophyseal portal system carries which of the following from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary?

  • Neuronal action potentials
  • Hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones
  • Cerebrospinal fluid
  • Oxytocin and ADH

Correct Answer: Hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones

Q22. Which pituitary lesion is most likely to cause bitemporal hemianopia due to optic chiasm compression?

  • Meningioma of frontal lobe
  • Pituitary macroadenoma
  • Acoustic neuroma
  • Medulloblastoma

Correct Answer: Pituitary macroadenoma

Q23. Which laboratory finding is typical in primary hyperaldosteronism (not pituitary origin) and helps differentiate it from pituitary causes?

  • Low plasma aldosterone concentration
  • High aldosterone-to-renin ratio
  • High ACTH levels
  • Low cortisol levels

Correct Answer: High aldosterone-to-renin ratio

Q24. Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection (let-down reflex) and is released from the posterior pituitary?

  • Prolactin
  • Oxytocin
  • Estrogen
  • TSH

Correct Answer: Oxytocin

Q25. Which condition results from postpartum ischemic necrosis of the pituitary due to severe hemorrhage and shock?

  • Sheehan’s syndrome
  • Empty sella syndrome
  • Pituitary apoplexy unrelated to childbirth
  • Craniopharyngioma

Correct Answer: Sheehan’s syndrome

Q26. Which pharmacologic agent is a GH receptor antagonist used to treat acromegaly?

  • Pegvisomant
  • Bromocriptine
  • Levothyroxine
  • Hydrocortisone

Correct Answer: Pegvisomant

Q27. Which of the following best explains hyperprolactinemia caused by a non-secretory pituitary macroadenoma?

  • Increased TRH secretion
  • Stalk effect reducing hypothalamic dopamine delivery to lactotrophs
  • Excess IGF-1 stimulating PRL release
  • Vascular congestion in the pars intermedia

Correct Answer: Stalk effect reducing hypothalamic dopamine delivery to lactotrophs

Q28. Which imaging modality is preferred to visualize pituitary microadenomas?

  • CT scan of the head without contrast
  • MRI of the sellar region with contrast
  • Ultrasound of the skull
  • Plain skull X-ray

Correct Answer: MRI of the sellar region with contrast

Q29. Which cell population in the anterior pituitary secretes TSH?

  • Gonadotrophs
  • Thyrotrophs
  • Lactotrophs
  • Somatotrophs

Correct Answer: Thyrotrophs

Q30. Which molecular precursor gives rise to both ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)?

  • POMC (proopiomelanocortin)
  • PTH (parathyroid hormone)
  • Proinsulin
  • Prolactin precursor

Correct Answer: POMC (proopiomelanocortin)

Q31. Which therapy is commonly used as first-line treatment for symptomatic pituitary macroadenomas compressing the optic chiasm?

  • Transsphenoidal surgical resection
  • High-dose radiation only
  • Systemic chemotherapy
  • Watchful waiting without intervention

Correct Answer: Transsphenoidal surgical resection

Q32. Which pituitary hormone primarily controls adrenal cortical cortisol synthesis?

  • TSH
  • ACTH
  • Prolactin
  • GH

Correct Answer: ACTH

Q33. Which syndrome is caused by excessive ADH secretion leading to hyponatremia and concentrated urine?

  • Diabetes insipidus
  • Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
  • Conn’s syndrome
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

Q34. Which pharmacologic agent is a vasopressin V2 receptor antagonist used to correct hyponatremia in SIADH?

  • Desmopressin
  • Tolvaptan
  • Cabergoline
  • Somatropin

Correct Answer: Tolvaptan

Q35. Which hormone stimulates ovarian follicle development and spermatogenesis and is secreted by pituitary gonadotrophs?

  • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • Growth hormone (GH)
  • Prolactin (PRL)

Correct Answer: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Q36. Which of the following correctly pairs a hypothalamic releasing hormone with its primary anterior pituitary target?

  • GnRH → thyrotrophs
  • TRH → lactotrophs and thyrotrophs
  • GHRH → corticotrophs
  • Dopamine → somatotrophs

Correct Answer: TRH → lactotrophs and thyrotrophs

Q37. Which clinical test is commonly used to confirm Cushing syndrome of pituitary origin (Cushing disease)?

  • MRI of adrenal glands only
  • High-dose dexamethasone suppression test showing suppression of cortisol
  • Glucose tolerance test
  • Serum IGF-1 measurement

Correct Answer: High-dose dexamethasone suppression test showing suppression of cortisol

Q38. Which pituitary cell stain property is characteristic for basophils under light microscopy?

  • Acidophilic (reddish) staining
  • Basophilic (blue/purple) staining
  • Neutral staining only
  • Non-staining chromophobes

Correct Answer: Basophilic (blue/purple) staining

Q39. A patient with panhypopituitarism may require replacement of which hormones? (Select the best answer)

  • Only insulin
  • Thyroid hormone and glucocorticoids among others
  • Only sex steroids
  • Only mineralocorticoids

Correct Answer: Thyroid hormone and glucocorticoids among others

Q40. Which pharmacologic class would you use to reduce GH secretion from a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma?

  • Beta blockers
  • Somatostatin analogs (e.g., octreotide)
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Thyroid hormone replacement

Correct Answer: Somatostatin analogs (e.g., octreotide)

Q41. Which physical finding is most suggestive of acromegaly in adults?

  • Premature closure of epiphyses with tall stature
  • Enlargement of jaw, hands and feet
  • Retarded bone age with short stature
  • Loss of secondary sexual characteristics only

Correct Answer: Enlargement of jaw, hands and feet

Q42. Which mechanism explains how dopamine agonists reduce prolactin levels?

  • Dopamine stimulates pituitary lactotroph proliferation
  • Dopamine binds D2 receptors on lactotrophs inhibiting PRL secretion
  • Dopamine increases TRH secretion which inhibits PRL
  • Dopamine degrades prolactin in the circulation

Correct Answer: Dopamine binds D2 receptors on lactotrophs inhibiting PRL secretion

Q43. Which pituitary disorder commonly causes infertility through suppression of GnRH pulsatility or direct gonadotropin changes?

  • Prolactinoma-induced hyperprolactinemia
  • Central diabetes insipidus
  • SIADH
  • Empty sella without hormonal dysfunction

Correct Answer: Prolactinoma-induced hyperprolactinemia

Q44. Which laboratory abnormality is typical in central (pituitary) diabetes insipidus?

  • Low serum sodium and low serum osmolality
  • High urine osmolality despite polyuria
  • Low urine osmolality with hypernatremia if free water loss is not replaced
  • Elevated serum ADH levels

Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality with hypernatremia if free water loss is not replaced

Q45. Which statement about the pars intermedia in adults is correct?

  • It is the major site of TSH production
  • It is well developed in adults and secretes prolactin
  • It is often rudimentary in adults but can produce MSH from POMC
  • It secretes aldosterone

Correct Answer: It is often rudimentary in adults but can produce MSH from POMC

Q46. Which medication is effective in treating acromegaly by blocking peripheral GH receptor signaling rather than reducing GH secretion?

  • Octreotide
  • Pegvisomant
  • Cabergoline
  • Desmopressin

Correct Answer: Pegvisomant

Q47. Which pituitary-related cause can lead to secondary adrenal insufficiency?

  • Primary adrenal cortical destruction
  • ACTH deficiency due to pituitary failure
  • Excess aldosterone secretion
  • Hyperthyroidism

Correct Answer: ACTH deficiency due to pituitary failure

Q48. Which clinical feature suggests prolactin excess in men?

  • Gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction
  • Excess linear growth of long bones
  • Polydipsia and polyuria
  • Weight loss and diarrhea

Correct Answer: Gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction

Q49. Damage to the pituitary stalk can cause which effect on anterior pituitary hormone levels?

  • Decreased prolactin due to loss of stimulatory dopamine
  • Increased prolactin due to interruption of hypothalamic dopamine delivery
  • Unchanged prolactin with increased ACTH
  • Selective loss of ADH only

Correct Answer: Increased prolactin due to interruption of hypothalamic dopamine delivery

Q50. Which clinical test is most appropriate to evaluate suspected hypopituitarism affecting multiple anterior pituitary axes?

  • Single random cortisol only
  • Comprehensive pituitary hormonal panel with dynamic stimulation tests as indicated
  • Serum sodium measurement only
  • Urinalysis only

Correct Answer: Comprehensive pituitary hormonal panel with dynamic stimulation tests as indicated

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