Salient features and functions of axial skeleton bones MCQs With Answer

Introduction: The axial skeleton comprises the skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum — structures fundamental to protection, support, movement and hematopoiesis. For B. Pharm students, understanding salient features and functions of axial bones is vital for linking anatomy with drug delivery, disease mechanisms and clinical implications. Key concepts include vertebral regional differences, foramina and cranial base anatomy, costovertebral articulations, sternal landmarks, intervertebral disc composition, spinal curvatures and primary functions such as protecting the brain and viscera, providing attachment for muscles, and housing marrow for blood cell formation. Mastery of these topics aids in interpreting pathology, imaging and therapeutic strategies. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which of the following is a primary function of the axial skeleton?

  • Protection of vital organs
  • Production of digestive enzymes
  • Conduction of nerve impulses
  • Hormone secretion

Correct Answer: Protection of vital organs

Q2. How many cervical vertebrae are normally present in the adult human vertebral column?

  • 12
  • 7
  • 5
  • 4

Correct Answer: 7

Q3. Which vertebral feature is unique to cervical vertebrae and transmits the vertebral artery?

  • Transverse foramen
  • Costal facet
  • Accessory process
  • Mammillary process

Correct Answer: Transverse foramen

Q4. The foramen magnum is located in which bone of the skull?

  • Temporal bone
  • Frontal bone
  • Occipital bone
  • Sphenoid bone

Correct Answer: Occipital bone

Q5. Which part of the sternum articulates with the clavicles and the first pair of ribs?

  • Xiphoid process
  • Manubrium
  • Body (gladiolus)
  • Sternal notch

Correct Answer: Manubrium

Q6. True ribs are defined as ribs that:

  • Have no anterior attachment
  • Attach directly to the sternum via their own costal cartilages
  • Attach via a shared costal cartilage to the sternum
  • Do not articulate with the thoracic vertebrae

Correct Answer: Attach directly to the sternum via their own costal cartilages

Q7. The intervertebral disc component responsible for absorbing compressive forces is the:

  • Annulus fibrosus
  • Nucleus pulposus
  • Vertebral end plate
  • Ligamentum flavum

Correct Answer: Nucleus pulposus

Q8. Which cervical vertebra is characterized by absence of a vertebral body and presence of lateral masses?

  • Axis (C2)
  • Atlas (C1)
  • C7 (vertebra prominens)
  • C3

Correct Answer: Atlas (C1)

Q9. The atlanto-axial joint primarily permits which movement of the head?

  • Nodding (flexion-extension)
  • Lateral flexion
  • Rotation (shaking head “no”)
  • Protraction and retraction

Correct Answer: Rotation (shaking head “no”)

Q10. Which vertebral region normally has costal facets on the vertebral body and transverse processes for rib articulation?

  • Cervical
  • Thoracic
  • Lumbar
  • Sacral

Correct Answer: Thoracic

Q11. The xiphoid process is a landmark for which clinical procedure or surface landmark?

  • Femoral pulse location
  • Placement of epigastric incision
  • Lower border of the heart and central tendon of the diaphragm
  • Insertion site for lumbar puncture

Correct Answer: Lower border of the heart and central tendon of the diaphragm

Q12. Which feature distinguishes lumbar vertebrae from thoracic vertebrae?

  • Presence of bifid spinous processes
  • Large, kidney-shaped vertebral body and short, thick spinous process
  • Costal facets for ribs
  • Transverse foramina

Correct Answer: Large, kidney-shaped vertebral body and short, thick spinous process

Q13. The vertebral curvature that develops to allow upright posture and head lifting in infancy is the:

  • Thoracic (kyphosis)
  • Sacral (kyphosis)
  • Cervical (lordosis)
  • Primary lumbar curvature

Correct Answer: Cervical (lordosis)

Q14. Which cranial bone forms the anterior cranial fossa and contains the cribriform plate for olfactory nerve fibers?

  • Ethmoid bone
  • Parietal bone
  • Temporal bone
  • Occipital bone

Correct Answer: Ethmoid bone

Q15. The dens (odontoid process) is a prominent projection of which vertebra?

  • Atlas (C1)
  • Axis (C2)
  • C7
  • Thoracic 1 (T1)

Correct Answer: Axis (C2)

Q16. Posterolateral herniation of an intervertebral disc in the lumbar region most commonly compresses which structure?

  • Spinal cord at the level
  • Adjacent intervertebral artery
  • Spinal nerve root exiting below the affected disc
  • Sympathetic trunk

Correct Answer: Spinal nerve root exiting below the affected disc

Q17. Which skull suture is located between the parietal and temporal bones?

  • Coronal suture
  • Sagittal suture
  • Lambdoid suture
  • Squamosal (squamous) suture

Correct Answer: Squamosal (squamous) suture

Q18. The primary ossification centers for vertebral bodies develop in which embryonic tissue?

  • Neural crest cells
  • Lateral plate mesoderm
  • Endoderm

Correct Answer: Paraxial mesoderm (sclerotome)

Q19. Which foramen in the skull transmits the internal carotid artery into the cranial cavity?

  • Optic canal
  • Foramen ovale
  • Carotid canal
  • Foramen magnum

Correct Answer: Carotid canal

Q20. Sacral foramina primarily transmit which of the following?

  • Spinal cord segments
  • Dorsal and ventral rami of sacral spinal nerves
  • Major pelvic arteries
  • Symphysis pubis ligaments

Correct Answer: Dorsal and ventral rami of sacral spinal nerves

Q21. Which statement best describes the annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc?

  • It is gelatinous and centrally located
  • It is a dense fibrocartilaginous ring surrounding the nucleus pulposus
  • It forms the bony end plate of vertebrae
  • It is a ligament connecting spinous processes

Correct Answer: It is a dense fibrocartilaginous ring surrounding the nucleus pulposus

Q22. The temporal bone contains which important auditory structure?

  • Maxillary sinus
  • External acoustic meatus and middle ear ossicles
  • Foramen ovale
  • Cribriform plate

Correct Answer: External acoustic meatus and middle ear ossicles

Q23. Which rib articulates only with the vertebral body and not with the transverse process (i.e., has no tubercle articulation)?

  • First rib
  • Second rib
  • Tenth rib
  • Eleventh rib

Correct Answer: Eleventh rib

Q24. The sella turcica, which houses the pituitary gland, is a depression on which bone?

  • Frontal bone
  • Sphenoid bone
  • Temporal bone
  • Ethmoid bone

Correct Answer: Sphenoid bone

Q25. Which curvature type is present at birth and termed a ‘primary curvature’?

  • Cervical lordosis
  • Lumbar lordosis
  • Thoracic kyphosis
  • Pelvic rotation

Correct Answer: Thoracic kyphosis

Q26. Which ligament connects adjacent laminae of vertebrae and is elastic in nature?

  • Anterior longitudinal ligament
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament
  • Ligamentum flavum
  • Interspinous ligament

Correct Answer: Ligamentum flavum

Q27. In the context of hematopoiesis, which axial bone is commonly a site for bone marrow biopsy due to accessible marrow cavity?

  • Clavicle
  • Sternum (manubrium or body)
  • Maxilla
  • Hyoid bone

Correct Answer: Sternum (manubrium or body)

Q28. Which cranial opening transmits the optic nerve from the orbit to the cranial cavity?

  • Superior orbital fissure
  • Inferior orbital fissure
  • Optic canal
  • Foramen rotundum

Correct Answer: Optic canal

Q29. In thoracic vertebrae, the costotransverse joint is formed between the rib tubercle and which vertebral structure?

  • Transverse process
  • Spinous process
  • Vertebral body
  • Lamina

Correct Answer: Transverse process

Q30. Pathological increase in thoracic curvature (hyperkyphosis) primarily affects which function of the axial skeleton?

  • Facilitation of fine finger movements
  • Protection of the brain from trauma
  • Respiratory mechanics and thoracic cavity volume
  • Hematopoiesis in long bones

Correct Answer: Respiratory mechanics and thoracic cavity volume

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