Random screening in drug discovery MCQs With Answer

Random screening is an early drug discovery approach where diverse chemical or natural compound libraries are tested in unbiased bioassays to find active “hits”. For B.Pharm students, understanding random screening connects concepts in pharmacology, medicinal chemistry, high-throughput screening, assay design, hit identification, lead generation, toxicity profiling and structure–activity relationships. This method complements target-based and phenotypic strategies, helping identify novel scaffolds, unexpected mechanisms and chemical starting points for optimization. Practical knowledge of screening workflows, library composition, hit validation, false positives, ADME considerations and data analysis is essential for effective lead discovery and risk reduction. This focused set of MCQs with answers will reinforce core principles and exam-ready facts. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is the primary goal of random screening in early drug discovery?

  • To validate a pre-defined molecular target using a known inhibitor
  • To test diverse compounds in unbiased assays to identify active hits
  • To optimize ADME properties of a clinical candidate
  • To perform large-scale clinical trials

Correct Answer: To test diverse compounds in unbiased assays to identify active hits

Q2. Which screening approach is most characteristic of “random screening”?

  • Target-based high-content imaging
  • Phenotypic or unbiased functional assays
  • Structure-based virtual screening only
  • Clinical endpoint monitoring

Correct Answer: Phenotypic or unbiased functional assays

Q3. In high-throughput screening (HTS), what metric is commonly used to assess assay quality and separation between positive and negative controls?

  • pKa value
  • Z’-factor
  • LogP
  • IC50

Correct Answer: Z’-factor

Q4. Which of the following is a major advantage of random (phenotypic) screening over strictly target-based screening?

  • Requires detailed target structure information
  • More likely to reveal novel mechanisms of action
  • Produces fewer off-target effects by design
  • Always higher hit rates than target-based assays

Correct Answer: More likely to reveal novel mechanisms of action

Q5. What is a “hit” in the context of random screening?

  • A compound confirmed in clinical trials
  • A compound that shows desired activity in the primary screening assay
  • A compound with perfect ADME/Tox properties
  • A computational prediction with no experimental data

Correct Answer: A compound that shows desired activity in the primary screening assay

Q6. Which library property most increases the chance of discovering novel scaffolds in random screening?

  • Low chemical diversity
  • High structural diversity and novelty
  • Only analogs of a single lead
  • Only known drugs

Correct Answer: High structural diversity and novelty

Q7. What is a common cause of false positives in fluorescence-based screening assays?

  • Proper target engagement
  • Compound autofluorescence or quenching
  • Correct assay controls
  • High Z’-factor

Correct Answer: Compound autofluorescence or quenching

Q8. What is a counter-screen used for after an initial hit from random screening?

  • To increase plate throughput
  • To test the hit in an orthogonal assay and remove assay artifacts
  • To immediately start human trials
  • To calculate logP

Correct Answer: To test the hit in an orthogonal assay and remove assay artifacts

Q9. What does the term “PAINS” refer to in screening libraries?

  • Promiscuous Aggregating Inhibitors of Nuclear Signaling
  • Pan-Assay Interference Compounds that produce misleading assay readouts
  • Proteins Affected In Normal Screening
  • Preferred Analytical Inert Substances

Correct Answer: Pan-Assay Interference Compounds that produce misleading assay readouts

Q10. Which follow-up step is essential after identifying primary hits in random screening?

  • Skip validation and proceed to clinical trials
  • Hit confirmation with dose–response and orthogonal assays
  • Directly file a patent without further testing
  • Outsource to a CRO without documentation

Correct Answer: Hit confirmation with dose–response and orthogonal assays

Q11. Why is DMSO tolerance important in HTS assays?

  • DMSO always stabilizes proteins
  • Compounds are typically stored in DMSO; tolerance prevents solvent effects on assay readout
  • DMSO eliminates the need for controls
  • DMSO increases signal-to-noise ratio invariably

Correct Answer: Compounds are typically stored in DMSO; tolerance prevents solvent effects on assay readout

Q12. What does “hit rate” mean in a screening campaign?

  • The number of compounds screened per hour
  • The percentage of screened compounds that meet activity criteria
  • The toxicity percentage in animal studies
  • The fraction of compounds that are water-soluble

Correct Answer: The percentage of screened compounds that meet activity criteria

Q13. Which assay parameter describes the magnitude of signal difference between positive and negative controls?

  • Assay window or signal window
  • pIC50
  • Partition coefficient
  • LC50

Correct Answer: Assay window or signal window

Q14. What role does miniaturization play in HTS for random screening?

  • Increases reagent costs dramatically
  • Reduces reagent consumption and increases throughput
  • Prevents automation
  • Always reduces data quality

Correct Answer: Reduces reagent consumption and increases throughput

Q15. Which computational filter is useful during library design to avoid frequent hitters?

  • PAINS filters
  • LogP maximization
  • Increase molecular weight filter to >1000
  • None — filters are not used

Correct Answer: PAINS filters

Q16. What is an “orthogonal assay” in the context of hit validation?

  • An assay using the same detection principle as the primary screen
  • An independent assay that measures the same biological effect using a different readout
  • An assay run in a different laboratory without controls
  • An in silico docking simulation only

Correct Answer: An independent assay that measures the same biological effect using a different readout

Q17. Why is early ADME/Tox profiling important in hit-to-lead progression?

  • To determine plate layout
  • To identify liabilities like metabolic instability and toxicity early, saving time and cost
  • Because ADME/Tox is required for primary screening
  • To guarantee FDA approval

Correct Answer: To identify liabilities like metabolic instability and toxicity early, saving time and cost

Q18. Which phenomenon often causes false negatives in screening?

  • Appropriate assay sensitivity
  • Insufficient compound concentration or poor compound solubility
  • Using orthogonal assays
  • High hit confirmation rates

Correct Answer: Insufficient compound concentration or poor compound solubility

Q19. In random screening, what is an advantage of including natural product extracts in libraries?

  • They are always easy to synthesize and optimize
  • They often contain unique, biologically evolved scaffolds and complex chemotypes
  • They never show assay interference
  • They reduce assay complexity

Correct Answer: They often contain unique, biologically evolved scaffolds and complex chemotypes

Q20. What is the significance of signal-to-background ratio in a screening assay?

  • It quantifies assay robustness; higher ratio improves detection of true hits
  • It measures compound solubility
  • It is only relevant for clinical assays
  • It determines molecular weight of hits

Correct Answer: It quantifies assay robustness; higher ratio improves detection of true hits

Q21. Why are orthogonal biochemical assays used after phenotypic hits are found?

  • To confirm compound mechanism and exclude nonspecific effects
  • To immediately file patents
  • To increase the library size
  • To discard hits without testing

Correct Answer: To confirm compound mechanism and exclude nonspecific effects

Q22. What is an aggregating compound and why is it problematic in screening?

  • A compound that forms colloidal aggregates that nonspecifically inhibit proteins, causing false positives
  • A perfectly specific inhibitor
  • A compound that degrades rapidly in buffer
  • A compound with ideal solubility

Correct Answer: A compound that forms colloidal aggregates that nonspecifically inhibit proteins, causing false positives

Q23. Which parameter is commonly determined in hit confirmation experiments to quantify potency?

  • pH
  • IC50 or EC50
  • Melting point
  • Retention time

Correct Answer: IC50 or EC50

Q24. How does combinatorial chemistry support random screening efforts?

  • By generating diverse libraries of analogs for SAR exploration and hit optimization
  • By reducing compound diversity
  • By guaranteeing clinical safety
  • By eliminating the need for assays

Correct Answer: By generating diverse libraries of analogs for SAR exploration and hit optimization

Q25. Which automation component is most critical for reproducible HTS?

  • Manual pipetting
  • Robotic liquid handlers and precise plate readers
  • Hand labeling of tubes
  • Audio control systems

Correct Answer: Robotic liquid handlers and precise plate readers

Q26. What is the purpose of including positive and negative controls on screening plates?

  • Only for aesthetics
  • To normalize data, monitor assay performance and calculate metrics like Z’-factor
  • To increase the number of hits artificially
  • To slow down the screening process

Correct Answer: To normalize data, monitor assay performance and calculate metrics like Z’-factor

Q27. Why is data curation important after a random screening run?

  • To randomly delete data
  • To remove artifacts, flag suspicious results, and prepare reliable hit lists for follow-up
  • To bypass hit confirmation
  • To immediately publish raw results

Correct Answer: To remove artifacts, flag suspicious results, and prepare reliable hit lists for follow-up

Q28. Which screening scale is most appropriate for an initial broad random screen of a medium-sized academic library?

  • Single-compound crystallography
  • High-throughput plate-based assay (384- or 1536-well)
  • Large Phase III clinical study
  • In vivo toxicology in multiple species

Correct Answer: High-throughput plate-based assay (384- or 1536-well)

Q29. How does early structure–activity relationship (SAR) analysis assist hit progression?

  • By identifying which structural changes improve potency, selectivity and ADME properties
  • By preventing any chemical modification of hits
  • By only focusing on biological assays
  • By eliminating the need for medicinal chemistry

Correct Answer: By identifying which structural changes improve potency, selectivity and ADME properties

Q30. Which consideration improves the translational value of hits from random screening to in vivo models?

  • Ignoring solubility and exposure
  • Early assessment of pharmacokinetics, solubility and metabolic stability
  • Only measuring in vitro potency without context
  • Assuming all hits have good oral bioavailability

Correct Answer: Early assessment of pharmacokinetics, solubility and metabolic stability

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