Organized drugs MCQs With Answer

Organized Drugs MCQs With Answer is a focused collection designed for B.Pharm students to master drug classification, pharmacology, and therapeutic application. This resource emphasizes drug classes, mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, dosage forms, side effects, drug interactions and monitoring strategies. Questions probe deeper concepts like prodrugs, CYP-mediated interactions, narrow therapeutic index drugs, biosimilars and IV incompatibilities, helping students prepare for exams and practical pharmacy tasks. Clear answers and explanations support rapid revision and clinical reasoning. Use these MCQs to reinforce learning of drug nomenclature, regulatory schedules, stability, and safe dispensing practices. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which basis is commonly used to organize drugs in pharmacy practice and textbooks?

• Organized by therapeutic use, mechanism of action, chemical structure, and site of action
• Organized only by price and manufacturer
• Organized strictly by color and shape
• Organized only by prescription frequency

Correct Answer: Organized by therapeutic use, mechanism of action, chemical structure, and site of action

Q2. Which of the following antibiotics is a beta-lactam and acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis?

• Ceftriaxone
• Azithromycin
• Vancomycin
• Tetracycline

Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone

Q3. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) primarily exert their analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects by which mechanism?

• Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzymes (COX-1 and COX-2)
• Blocking NMDA receptors in the central nervous system
• Antagonizing opioid receptors
• Inhibition of lipoxygenase pathway only

Correct Answer: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzymes (COX-1 and COX-2)

Q4. ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure mainly by which pharmacological action?

• Blocking conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
• Directly blocking beta-adrenergic receptors
• Inhibiting renin release from the kidney
• Antagonizing aldosterone receptors

Correct Answer: Blocking conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Q5. Which pharmacokinetic parameter primarily determines the time required to reach steady state during continuous dosing?

• Elimination half-life
• Volume of distribution
• Absorption rate constant
• Bioavailability

Correct Answer: Elimination half-life

Q6. Which of the following drugs is a classic example of a prodrug that requires metabolic activation?

• Codeine
• Morphine
• Aspirin
• Metformin

Correct Answer: Codeine

Q7. Which drug is a potent inducer of the CYP3A4 enzyme and can reduce plasma levels of many co-administered drugs?

• Rifampicin
• Ketoconazole
• Fluconazole
• Cimetidine

Correct Answer: Rifampicin

Q8. Which clinical scenario most commonly increases warfarin anticoagulant effect and bleeding risk?

• Broad-spectrum antibiotics that reduce gut vitamin K–producing flora
• Administration of oral vitamin K supplements
• High dietary intake of leafy green vegetables
• Concurrent use of cholestyramine

Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum antibiotics that reduce gut vitamin K–producing flora

Q9. The therapeutic index (TI) of a drug is best described as which of the following?

• The ratio between a drug’s toxic dose and its effective dose (TD50/ED50)
• The time it takes to reach peak plasma concentration
• The absolute bioavailability of an oral dose
• The volume of distribution divided by clearance

Correct Answer: The ratio between a drug’s toxic dose and its effective dose (TD50/ED50)

Q10. Which of the following drugs has a narrow therapeutic index and routinely requires therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

• Lithium
• Paracetamol
• Amoxicillin
• Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Lithium

Q11. Which beta‑blocker is considered relatively selective for β1-adrenergic receptors at typical therapeutic doses?

• Metoprolol
• Propranolol
• Labetalol
• Pindolol

Correct Answer: Metoprolol

Q12. Thiazide diuretics exert their primary action at which site in the nephron?

• Distal convoluted tubule
• Proximal convoluted tubule
• Loop of Henle
• Collecting duct

Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

Q13. Carbamazepine primarily controls seizures through which mechanism?

• Inhibition of voltage-gated sodium channels stabilizing the inactivated state
• Enhancement of GABAergic synaptic transmission
• Blocking NMDA receptor-mediated excitatory transmission
• Inhibition of calcium channels in thalamic neurons

Correct Answer: Inhibition of voltage-gated sodium channels stabilizing the inactivated state

Q14. Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics exert antipsychotic effects mainly by antagonism of which receptor?

• Dopamine D2 receptor
• Serotonin 5-HT1A receptor
• NMDA receptor
• GABA-A receptor

Correct Answer: Dopamine D2 receptor

Q15. Which anticoagulant directly inhibits thrombin (factor IIa) and is administered orally?

• Dabigatran
• Rivaroxaban
• Apixaban
• Warfarin

Correct Answer: Dabigatran

Q16. Aminoglycoside antibiotics primarily inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to which ribosomal subunit?

• 30S ribosomal subunit
• 50S ribosomal subunit
• 23S rRNA only
• 70S intact ribosome without subunit specificity

Correct Answer: 30S ribosomal subunit

Q17. Long-term systemic corticosteroid therapy is most commonly associated with which adverse effect?

• Osteoporosis
• Renal stone formation
• Peripheral neuropathy
• Thrombocytopenia

Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

Q18. First-pass metabolism refers to which pharmacokinetic phenomenon?

• Hepatic metabolism that reduces the amount of orally administered drug reaching systemic circulation
• Renal excretion of unchanged drug immediately after absorption
• Metabolism by intestinal microflora that increases bioavailability
• Metabolism occurring only in the lungs after IV administration

Correct Answer: Hepatic metabolism that reduces the amount of orally administered drug reaching systemic circulation

Q19. Bioavailability (F) of an oral drug is best defined as:

• The fraction of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged
• The percentage of drug that binds to plasma proteins
• The rate at which a drug is eliminated from plasma
• The total urinary excretion of metabolites

Correct Answer: The fraction of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged

Q20. Which antibiotic class has been associated with an increased risk of tendon rupture, especially in older adults?

• Fluoroquinolones
• Macrolides
• Lincosamides
• Aminoglycosides

Correct Answer: Fluoroquinolones

Q21. Which IV combination is known to form a potentially harmful precipitate and should be avoided, particularly in neonates?

• Ceftriaxone and calcium-containing IV solutions
• Amoxicillin and normal saline
• Vancomycin and dextrose 5% solution
• Gentamicin and lactated Ringer’s solution

Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone and calcium-containing IV solutions

Q22. Which antimuscarinic agent is commonly used to prevent motion sickness by transdermal or oral routes?

• Scopolamine (hyoscine)
• Atropine sulfate injection
• Neostigmine
• Pilocarpine

Correct Answer: Scopolamine (hyoscine)

Q23. Which of the following is a bisphosphonate used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption?

• Alendronate
• Calcitriol
• Propranolol
• Raloxifene

Correct Answer: Alendronate

Q24. Statins lower cholesterol primarily through inhibition of which enzyme?

• HMG-CoA reductase
• Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
• Cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase
• PCSK9 protease

Correct Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

Q25. Which antibiotic is generally considered bacteriostatic rather than bactericidal?

• Tetracycline
• Penicillin G
• Ciprofloxacin
• Gentamicin

Correct Answer: Tetracycline

Q26. In many national controlled-substance frameworks, which schedule typically lists substances with no accepted medical use and high abuse potential?

• Schedule I
• Schedule II
• Schedule III
• Schedule V

Correct Answer: Schedule I

Q27. Proton pump inhibitors reduce gastric acid secretion by acting on which target?

• Irreversible inhibition of the H+/K+ ATPase (proton pump) on parietal cells
• Blocking histamine H2 receptors on parietal cells
• Neutralizing gastric acid in the lumen
• Stimulating somatostatin release from D cells

Correct Answer: Irreversible inhibition of the H+/K+ ATPase (proton pump) on parietal cells

Q28. Bioequivalence between a brand and generic product is demonstrated when they show no significant difference in which properties?

• Rate and extent of absorption (pharmacokinetic profile)
• Color and packaging only
• Manufacturing cost and supplier
• Marketing claims and indications

Correct Answer: Rate and extent of absorption (pharmacokinetic profile)

Q29. Which antibiotic is primarily active against Gram-positive cocci and is used for MRSA and serious Gram-positive infections?

• Vancomycin
• Cefepime
• Ciprofloxacin

Correct Answer: Vancomycin

Q30. Rituximab, used in some cancer and autoimmune conditions, is a monoclonal antibody targeting which antigen?

• CD20 on B lymphocytes
• EGFR on epithelial cells
• VEGF in tumor vasculature
• PD-1 on T cells

Correct Answer: CD20 on B lymphocytes

G S Sachin

I am a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. I hold a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research. With a strong academic foundation and practical knowledge, I am committed to providing accurate, easy-to-understand content to support pharmacy students and professionals. My aim is to make complex pharmaceutical concepts accessible and useful for real-world application.

Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com