While pharmacists are not typically first responders, their accessibility in the community means they may be the first healthcare professional on the scene of a medical emergency. A pharmacist’s ability to recognize a critical situation, provide immediate and appropriate aid within their scope, and activate the emergency response system is a vital skill. This quiz will test your knowledge on the principles of first response preparation for common medical emergencies.
1. A patient collapses in the pharmacy and is unresponsive without a pulse. According to Basic Life Support (BLS) principles, what is the first step after ensuring the scene is safe and calling for help?
- a. Perform a pulse check for 2 minutes.
- b. Begin chest compressions.
- c. Deliver two rescue breaths.
- d. Place the patient in the recovery position.
Answer: b. Begin chest compressions.
2. What is the recommended rate for chest compressions in an adult?
- a. 60-80 compressions per minute
- b. 80-100 compressions per minute
- c. 100-120 compressions per minute
- d. As fast as you can.
Answer: c. 100-120 compressions per minute
3. A patient with a known severe allergy to bees is stung and begins wheezing and developing hives. What is the most critical first-line treatment?
- a. An oral antihistamine like diphenhydramine.
- b. A topical hydrocortisone cream.
- c. An intramuscular injection of epinephrine.
- d. An albuterol inhaler.
Answer: c. An intramuscular injection of epinephrine.
4. When counseling a patient on how to use an epinephrine auto-injector, you should instruct them to inject it into the:
- a. Buttocks
- b. Anterolateral aspect of the thigh
- c. Upper arm (deltoid muscle)
- d. Abdomen
Answer: b. Anterolateral aspect of the thigh
5. A patient is found unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and slow, shallow breathing. You suspect an opioid overdose. What is the most appropriate first-response medication?
- a. Epinephrine
- b. Atropine
- c. Naloxone
- d. Flumazenil
Answer: c. Naloxone
6. What is the primary purpose of administering naloxone in an opioid overdose?
- a. To reverse the euphoric effects of the opioid.
- b. To reverse the life-threatening respiratory depression.
- c. To treat the patient’s underlying addiction.
- d. To cause a painful withdrawal syndrome.
Answer: b. To reverse the life-threatening respiratory depression.
7. A customer in the pharmacy suddenly grabs their chest, complains of crushing pain, and appears pale and diaphoretic. After calling 911, what is a common first-aid measure that can be recommended for a suspected heart attack?
- a. A full-strength (325 mg) non-enteric coated aspirin, to be chewed.
- b. A glass of water.
- c. A nitroglycerin tablet from another patient.
- d. A dose of an antacid.
Answer: a. A full-strength (325 mg) non-enteric coated aspirin, to be chewed.
8. The acronym F.A.S.T. is used to help recognize the signs of a stroke. The “S” stands for:
- a. Strength
- b. Sensation
- c. Speech
- d. Swelling
Answer: c. Speech
9. A patient is having a tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure in the pharmacy aisle. The most appropriate immediate action is to:
- a. Insert something into their mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue.
- b. Restrain their movements to prevent injury.
- c. Move nearby objects to ensure their safety and turn them on their side if possible.
- d. Yell at them to snap out of it.
Answer: c. Move nearby objects to ensure their safety and turn them on their side if possible.
10. A conscious patient with diabetes feels shaky and confused. Their blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. What is the appropriate first response?
- a. Administer a glucagon injection.
- b. Provide them with 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like juice or glucose tablets.
- c. Give them a dose of their long-acting insulin.
- d. Have them eat a high-fat, high-protein snack.
Answer: b. Provide them with 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like juice or glucose tablets.
11. A patient has a severe cut on their arm that is bleeding profusely. The best initial action is to:
- a. Apply a tourniquet immediately.
- b. Wash the wound with soap and water.
- c. Apply direct, firm pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.
- d. Elevate the arm above the head.
Answer: c. Apply direct, firm pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.
12. Glucagon emergency kits are used to treat:
- a. Severe hyperglycemia
- b. Severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.
- c. Anaphylaxis
- d. An opioid overdose
Answer: b. Severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.
13. A key counseling point for an epinephrine auto-injector is:
- a. It can be used multiple times.
- b. It should be injected into a vein.
- c. The patient should still call 911 or go to the emergency department after using it.
- d. It should be stored in the car’s glove box.
Answer: c. The patient should still call 911 or go to the emergency department after using it.
14. After administering naloxone to a person who has overdosed, they wake up and become agitated. The first responder should be aware that:
- a. The naloxone dose was too high.
- b. The naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opioids, and the person may become unresponsive again.
- c. The naloxone did not work.
- d. The patient is having an allergic reaction.
Answer: b. The naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opioids, and the person may become unresponsive again.
15. What is the first thing you should do when you encounter a potential emergency scene?
- a. Start chest compressions.
- b. Check for a pulse.
- c. Ensure the scene is safe for you to enter.
- d. Call the patient’s family.
Answer: c. Ensure the scene is safe for you to enter.
16. For an adult victim, what is the correct depth for chest compressions?
- a. At least 1 inch
- b. At least 2 inches
- c. At least 3 inches
- d. At least 4 inches
Answer: b. At least 2 inches
17. What does AED stand for?
- a. Adrenal Electrical Device
- b. Automated External Defibrillator
- c. Advanced Emergency Defibrillator
- d. Automatic Epinephrine Delivery
Answer: b. Automated External Defibrillator
18. A patient is choking but is still able to cough forcefully. What should you do?
- a. Immediately begin abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver).
- b. Perform a blind finger sweep of their mouth.
- c. Encourage them to keep coughing.
- d. Give them a glass of water.
Answer: c. Encourage them to keep coughing.
19. When should you call 911 or activate the emergency response system for an unresponsive adult?
- a. After performing 5 cycles of CPR.
- b. Immediately, before starting CPR.
- c. After checking for a pulse for one minute.
- d. Only if CPR is unsuccessful after 10 minutes.
Answer: b. Immediately, before starting CPR.
20. The “T” in the F.A.S.T. acronym for a stroke stands for:
- a. Temperature
- b. Tachycardia
- c. Time to call 911
- d. Tingling
Answer: c. Time to call 911
21. A patient in the pharmacy waiting area complains of sudden facial drooping on one side. This is a potential sign of:
- a. A heart attack
- b. A seizure
- c. Anaphylaxis
- d. A stroke
Answer: d. A stroke
22. When counseling a family member on how to use a glucagon emergency kit, it is important to tell them to:
- a. Inject the glucagon into a vein.
- b. Place the patient on their side after the injection, as vomiting can occur.
- c. Give half the dose now and half later.
- d. Mix the glucagon with sterile water hours before it might be needed.
Answer: b. Place the patient on their side after the injection, as vomiting can occur.
23. After using an epinephrine auto-injector, how long should the device be held in place against the thigh?
- a. For 1 second
- b. For 3-10 seconds (depending on the device)
- c. For 30 seconds
- d. For 1 minute
Answer: b. For 3-10 seconds (depending on the device)
24. The primary role of a pharmacist in a “first response” situation in the community is to:
- a. Act as a trained paramedic.
- b. Recognize the emergency, provide appropriate aid within their scope, and activate the emergency medical system.
- c. Take charge and direct all bystanders.
- d. Diagnose the patient’s condition.
Answer: b. Recognize the emergency, provide appropriate aid within their scope, and activate the emergency medical system.
25. A burn from a chemical should first be treated by:
- a. Applying butter or oil.
- b. Applying a tight bandage.
- c. Flushing the area with large amounts of cool water.
- d. Applying ice directly to the burn.
Answer: c. Flushing the area with large amounts of cool water.
26. Why is it important to chew a full-strength aspirin during a suspected heart attack?
- a. It tastes better.
- b. Chewing leads to faster absorption and antiplatelet effect.
- c. It helps with the pain immediately.
- d. It dissolves the clot completely.
Answer: b. Chewing leads to faster absorption and antiplatelet effect.
27. In a patient having a seizure, the primary goal is:
- a. To stop the seizure.
- b. To prevent injury.
- c. To administer medication.
- d. To hold them down.
Answer: b. To prevent injury.
28. An intranasal naloxone device is designed to be:
- a. Used by trained medical professionals only.
- b. Administered as one spray into one nostril.
- c. Used multiple times on the same person.
- d. Inhaled deeply.
Answer: b. Administered as one spray into one nostril.
29. The most important information to give a 911 dispatcher is:
- a. Your name and phone number.
- b. A detailed medical history of the victim.
- c. Your location and the nature of the emergency.
- d. The patient’s insurance information.
Answer: c. Your location and the nature of the emergency.
30. Which of the following is NOT a sign of anaphylaxis?
- a. Hives and swelling
- b. Difficulty breathing or wheezing
- c. A slow, bounding pulse
- d. A feeling of impending doom
Answer: c. A slow, bounding pulse
31. The “recovery position” (placing an unresponsive but breathing person on their side) is used to:
- a. Keep the person warm.
- b. Keep the airway open and prevent aspiration if they vomit.
- c. Make CPR easier to perform.
- d. Stabilize a potential spinal injury.
Answer: b. Keep the airway open and prevent aspiration if they vomit.
32. What is the correct hand placement for chest compressions on an adult?
- a. On the upper half of the sternum.
- b. On the lower half of the sternum (center of the chest).
- c. On the left side of the chest, directly over the heart.
- d. On the abdomen.
Answer: b. On the lower half of the sternum (center of the chest).
33. The most important action to improve a victim’s chance of survival from sudden cardiac arrest is:
- a. Early CPR and defibrillation.
- b. Administering aspirin.
- c. Placing them in the recovery position.
- d. Providing rescue breaths only.
Answer: a. Early CPR and defibrillation.
34. A patient is experiencing heat stroke. Which of the following is a sign of this life-threatening condition?
- a. Profuse sweating and cool skin.
- b. Hot, dry skin and altered mental status.
- c. A normal body temperature.
- d. Goosebumps.
Answer: b. Hot, dry skin and altered mental status.
35. The immediate treatment for heat stroke is:
- a. To give the person a warm drink.
- b. To have the person exercise to generate sweat.
- c. To call 911 and begin rapid cooling measures immediately.
- d. To cover the person with a blanket.
Answer: c. To call 911 and begin rapid cooling measures immediately.
36. A person has a nosebleed. The correct first aid is to:
- a. Have them tilt their head back.
- b. Pack the nostril with cotton.
- c. Have them sit, lean forward slightly, and pinch their nostrils together.
- d. Apply a warm compress to the nose.
Answer: c. Have them sit, lean forward slightly, and pinch their nostrils together.
37. A key aspect of “first response preparation” is:
- a. Knowing the location of the first aid kit and AED in your workplace.
- b. Having emergency contact numbers readily available.
- c. Being trained in Basic Life Support (BLS).
- d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
38. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?
- a. For any minor cut or scrape.
- b. As a first-line treatment for all bleeding.
- c. Only for severe, life-threatening extremity bleeding when direct pressure is ineffective.
- d. It should never be used.
Answer: c. Only for severe, life-threatening extremity bleeding when direct pressure is ineffective.
39. A patient is having an asthma attack and is struggling to breathe. The best first response is to:
- a. Have them breathe into a paper bag.
- b. Give them a drink of water.
- c. Assist them in using their own rescue inhaler (e.g., albuterol).
- d. Tell them to calm down.
Answer: c. Assist them in using their own rescue inhaler (e.g., albuterol).
40. Universal precautions, such as wearing gloves, are important in first aid situations to:
- a. Keep your hands warm.
- b. Protect yourself and the victim from the transmission of bloodborne pathogens.
- c. Make it easier to apply bandages.
- d. They are not necessary.
Answer: b. Protect yourself and the victim from the transmission of bloodborne pathogens.
41. The “A” in the F.A.S.T. acronym for stroke stands for:
- a. Anxiety
- b. Arm weakness
- c. Alertness
- d. Age
Answer: b. Arm weakness
42. Why is it important to know the time of onset for stroke symptoms?
- a. It determines which family member to call first.
- b. It is a critical factor in determining eligibility for treatments like tPA (thrombolytics).
- c. It helps with insurance billing.
- d. It is not important information.
Answer: b. It is a critical factor in determining eligibility for treatments like tPA (thrombolytics).
43. A second dose of naloxone may be needed for an opioid overdose because:
- a. The first dose is always too low.
- b. Many opioids have a longer duration of action than naloxone.
- c. The patient may have developed a tolerance.
- d. A second dose is never needed.
Answer: b. Many opioids have a longer duration of action than naloxone.
44. Which of the following is NOT a good source of 15g of fast-acting carbohydrate?
- a. 4 ounces of regular soda
- b. 4 glucose tablets
- c. 1 tablespoon of sugar
- d. 1 tablespoon of peanut butter
Answer: d. 1 tablespoon of peanut butter
45. What is the role of a pharmacist in a public health emergency like a pandemic?
- a. To act as a trusted source of information.
- b. To administer vaccines.
- c. To dispense emergency medications.
- d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
46. A patient is having a syncopal (fainting) episode. You should:
- a. Slap their face to wake them up.
- b. Help them to the floor, lay them flat, and elevate their legs.
- c. Prop them up in a sitting position.
- d. Give them something to drink.
Answer: b. Help them to the floor, lay them flat, and elevate their legs.
47. Good Samaritan Laws in most places are designed to:
- a. Punish people for helping in an emergency.
- b. Protect individuals who provide reasonable assistance to those who are ill or injured from liability.
- c. Require all citizens to be trained in first aid.
- d. Pay people for helping in an emergency.
Answer: b. Protect individuals who provide reasonable assistance to those who are ill or injured from liability.
48. An AED should be used on a person who is:
- a. Unresponsive and not breathing.
- b. Awake and talking.
- c. Having a seizure.
- d. Choking.
Answer: a. Unresponsive and not breathing.
49. After an AED delivers a shock, what is the next immediate step?
- a. Re-analyze the rhythm.
- b. Check for a pulse.
- c. Resume chest compressions immediately.
- d. Deliver two rescue breaths.
Answer: c. Resume chest compressions immediately.
50. The most important action anyone can take in a medical emergency is:
- a. To take a video on their phone.
- b. To leave the scene.
- c. To call for help (activate EMS/911).
- d. To administer any medication they can find.
Answer: c. To call for help (activate EMS/911).
