MCQ Quiz: First Response Preparation

While pharmacists are not typically first responders, their accessibility in the community means they may be the first healthcare professional on the scene of a medical emergency. A pharmacist’s ability to recognize a critical situation, provide immediate and appropriate aid within their scope, and activate the emergency response system is a vital skill. This quiz will test your knowledge on the principles of first response preparation for common medical emergencies.

1. A patient collapses in the pharmacy and is unresponsive without a pulse. According to Basic Life Support (BLS) principles, what is the first step after ensuring the scene is safe and calling for help?

• a. Perform a pulse check for 2 minutes.
• b. Begin chest compressions.
• c. Deliver two rescue breaths.
• d. Place the patient in the recovery position.

Answer: b. Begin chest compressions.

2. What is the recommended rate for chest compressions in an adult?

• a. 60-80 compressions per minute
• b. 80-100 compressions per minute
• c. 100-120 compressions per minute
• d. As fast as you can.

Answer: c. 100-120 compressions per minute

3. A patient with a known severe allergy to bees is stung and begins wheezing and developing hives. What is the most critical first-line treatment?

• a. An oral antihistamine like diphenhydramine.
• b. A topical hydrocortisone cream.
• c. An intramuscular injection of epinephrine.
• d. An albuterol inhaler.

Answer: c. An intramuscular injection of epinephrine.

4. When counseling a patient on how to use an epinephrine auto-injector, you should instruct them to inject it into the:

• a. Buttocks
• b. Anterolateral aspect of the thigh
• c. Upper arm (deltoid muscle)
• d. Abdomen

Answer: b. Anterolateral aspect of the thigh

5. A patient is found unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and slow, shallow breathing. You suspect an opioid overdose. What is the most appropriate first-response medication?

• a. Epinephrine
• b. Atropine
• c. Naloxone
• d. Flumazenil

Answer: c. Naloxone

6. What is the primary purpose of administering naloxone in an opioid overdose?

• a. To reverse the euphoric effects of the opioid.
• b. To reverse the life-threatening respiratory depression.
• c. To treat the patient’s underlying addiction.
• d. To cause a painful withdrawal syndrome.

Answer: b. To reverse the life-threatening respiratory depression.

7. A customer in the pharmacy suddenly grabs their chest, complains of crushing pain, and appears pale and diaphoretic. After calling 911, what is a common first-aid measure that can be recommended for a suspected heart attack?

• a. A full-strength (325 mg) non-enteric coated aspirin, to be chewed.
• b. A glass of water.
• c. A nitroglycerin tablet from another patient.
• d. A dose of an antacid.

Answer: a. A full-strength (325 mg) non-enteric coated aspirin, to be chewed.

8. The acronym F.A.S.T. is used to help recognize the signs of a stroke. The “S” stands for:

• a. Strength
• b. Sensation
• c. Speech
• d. Swelling

Answer: c. Speech

9. A patient is having a tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure in the pharmacy aisle. The most appropriate immediate action is to:

• a. Insert something into their mouth to prevent them from biting their tongue.
• b. Restrain their movements to prevent injury.
• c. Move nearby objects to ensure their safety and turn them on their side if possible.
• d. Yell at them to snap out of it.

Answer: c. Move nearby objects to ensure their safety and turn them on their side if possible.

10. A conscious patient with diabetes feels shaky and confused. Their blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. What is the appropriate first response?

• a. Administer a glucagon injection.
• b. Provide them with 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like juice or glucose tablets.
• c. Give them a dose of their long-acting insulin.
• d. Have them eat a high-fat, high-protein snack.

Answer: b. Provide them with 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like juice or glucose tablets.

11. A patient has a severe cut on their arm that is bleeding profusely. The best initial action is to:

• a. Apply a tourniquet immediately.
• b. Wash the wound with soap and water.
• c. Apply direct, firm pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.
• d. Elevate the arm above the head.

Answer: c. Apply direct, firm pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.

12. Glucagon emergency kits are used to treat:

• a. Severe hyperglycemia
• b. Severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.
• c. Anaphylaxis
• d. An opioid overdose

Answer: b. Severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.

13. A key counseling point for an epinephrine auto-injector is:

• a. It can be used multiple times.
• b. It should be injected into a vein.
• c. The patient should still call 911 or go to the emergency department after using it.
• d. It should be stored in the car’s glove box.

Answer: c. The patient should still call 911 or go to the emergency department after using it.

14. After administering naloxone to a person who has overdosed, they wake up and become agitated. The first responder should be aware that:

• a. The naloxone dose was too high.
• b. The naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opioids, and the person may become unresponsive again.
• c. The naloxone did not work.
• d. The patient is having an allergic reaction.

Answer: b. The naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opioids, and the person may become unresponsive again.

15. What is the first thing you should do when you encounter a potential emergency scene?

• a. Start chest compressions.
• b. Check for a pulse.
• c. Ensure the scene is safe for you to enter.
• d. Call the patient’s family.

Answer: c. Ensure the scene is safe for you to enter.

16. For an adult victim, what is the correct depth for chest compressions?

• a. At least 1 inch
• b. At least 2 inches
• c. At least 3 inches
• d. At least 4 inches

Answer: b. At least 2 inches

17. What does AED stand for?

• a. Adrenal Electrical Device
• b. Automated External Defibrillator
• c. Advanced Emergency Defibrillator
• d. Automatic Epinephrine Delivery

Answer: b. Automated External Defibrillator

18. A patient is choking but is still able to cough forcefully. What should you do?

• a. Immediately begin abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver).
• b. Perform a blind finger sweep of their mouth.
• c. Encourage them to keep coughing.
• d. Give them a glass of water.

Answer: c. Encourage them to keep coughing.

19. When should you call 911 or activate the emergency response system for an unresponsive adult?

• a. After performing 5 cycles of CPR.
• b. Immediately, before starting CPR.
• c. After checking for a pulse for one minute.
• d. Only if CPR is unsuccessful after 10 minutes.

Answer: b. Immediately, before starting CPR.

20. The “T” in the F.A.S.T. acronym for a stroke stands for:

• a. Temperature
• b. Tachycardia
• c. Time to call 911
• d. Tingling

Answer: c. Time to call 911

21. A patient in the pharmacy waiting area complains of sudden facial drooping on one side. This is a potential sign of:

• a. A heart attack
• b. A seizure
• c. Anaphylaxis
• d. A stroke

Answer: d. A stroke

22. When counseling a family member on how to use a glucagon emergency kit, it is important to tell them to:

• a. Inject the glucagon into a vein.
• b. Place the patient on their side after the injection, as vomiting can occur.
• c. Give half the dose now and half later.
• d. Mix the glucagon with sterile water hours before it might be needed.

Answer: b. Place the patient on their side after the injection, as vomiting can occur.

23. After using an epinephrine auto-injector, how long should the device be held in place against the thigh?

• a. For 1 second
• b. For 3-10 seconds (depending on the device)
• c. For 30 seconds
• d. For 1 minute

Answer: b. For 3-10 seconds (depending on the device)

24. The primary role of a pharmacist in a “first response” situation in the community is to:

• a. Act as a trained paramedic.
• b. Recognize the emergency, provide appropriate aid within their scope, and activate the emergency medical system.
• c. Take charge and direct all bystanders.
• d. Diagnose the patient’s condition.

Answer: b. Recognize the emergency, provide appropriate aid within their scope, and activate the emergency medical system.

25. A burn from a chemical should first be treated by:

• a. Applying butter or oil.
• b. Applying a tight bandage.
• c. Flushing the area with large amounts of cool water.
• d. Applying ice directly to the burn.

Answer: c. Flushing the area with large amounts of cool water.

26. Why is it important to chew a full-strength aspirin during a suspected heart attack?

• a. It tastes better.
• b. Chewing leads to faster absorption and antiplatelet effect.
• c. It helps with the pain immediately.
• d. It dissolves the clot completely.

Answer: b. Chewing leads to faster absorption and antiplatelet effect.

27. In a patient having a seizure, the primary goal is:

• a. To stop the seizure.
• b. To prevent injury.
• c. To administer medication.
• d. To hold them down.

Answer: b. To prevent injury.

28. An intranasal naloxone device is designed to be:

• a. Used by trained medical professionals only.
• b. Administered as one spray into one nostril.
• c. Used multiple times on the same person.
• d. Inhaled deeply.

Answer: b. Administered as one spray into one nostril.

29. The most important information to give a 911 dispatcher is:

• a. Your name and phone number.
• b. A detailed medical history of the victim.
• c. Your location and the nature of the emergency.
• d. The patient’s insurance information.

Answer: c. Your location and the nature of the emergency.

30. Which of the following is NOT a sign of anaphylaxis?

• a. Hives and swelling
• b. Difficulty breathing or wheezing
• c. A slow, bounding pulse
• d. A feeling of impending doom

Answer: c. A slow, bounding pulse

31. The “recovery position” (placing an unresponsive but breathing person on their side) is used to:

• a. Keep the person warm.
• b. Keep the airway open and prevent aspiration if they vomit.
• c. Make CPR easier to perform.
• d. Stabilize a potential spinal injury.

Answer: b. Keep the airway open and prevent aspiration if they vomit.

32. What is the correct hand placement for chest compressions on an adult?

• a. On the upper half of the sternum.
• b. On the lower half of the sternum (center of the chest).
• c. On the left side of the chest, directly over the heart.
• d. On the abdomen.

Answer: b. On the lower half of the sternum (center of the chest).

33. The most important action to improve a victim’s chance of survival from sudden cardiac arrest is:

• a. Early CPR and defibrillation.
• b. Administering aspirin.
• c. Placing them in the recovery position.
• d. Providing rescue breaths only.

Answer: a. Early CPR and defibrillation.

34. A patient is experiencing heat stroke. Which of the following is a sign of this life-threatening condition?

• a. Profuse sweating and cool skin.
• b. Hot, dry skin and altered mental status.
• c. A normal body temperature.
• d. Goosebumps.

Answer: b. Hot, dry skin and altered mental status.

35. The immediate treatment for heat stroke is:

• a. To give the person a warm drink.
• b. To have the person exercise to generate sweat.
• c. To call 911 and begin rapid cooling measures immediately.
• d. To cover the person with a blanket.

Answer: c. To call 911 and begin rapid cooling measures immediately.

36. A person has a nosebleed. The correct first aid is to:

• a. Have them tilt their head back.
• b. Pack the nostril with cotton.
• c. Have them sit, lean forward slightly, and pinch their nostrils together.
• d. Apply a warm compress to the nose.

Answer: c. Have them sit, lean forward slightly, and pinch their nostrils together.

37. A key aspect of “first response preparation” is:

• a. Knowing the location of the first aid kit and AED in your workplace.
• b. Having emergency contact numbers readily available.
• c. Being trained in Basic Life Support (BLS).
• d. All of the above.

Answer: d. All of the above.

38. When should a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?

• a. For any minor cut or scrape.
• b. As a first-line treatment for all bleeding.
• c. Only for severe, life-threatening extremity bleeding when direct pressure is ineffective.
• d. It should never be used.

Answer: c. Only for severe, life-threatening extremity bleeding when direct pressure is ineffective.

39. A patient is having an asthma attack and is struggling to breathe. The best first response is to:

• a. Have them breathe into a paper bag.
• b. Give them a drink of water.
• c. Assist them in using their own rescue inhaler (e.g., albuterol).
• d. Tell them to calm down.

Answer: c. Assist them in using their own rescue inhaler (e.g., albuterol).

40. Universal precautions, such as wearing gloves, are important in first aid situations to:

• a. Keep your hands warm.
• b. Protect yourself and the victim from the transmission of bloodborne pathogens.
• c. Make it easier to apply bandages.
• d. They are not necessary.

Answer: b. Protect yourself and the victim from the transmission of bloodborne pathogens.

41. The “A” in the F.A.S.T. acronym for stroke stands for:

• a. Anxiety
• b. Arm weakness
• c. Alertness
• d. Age

Answer: b. Arm weakness

42. Why is it important to know the time of onset for stroke symptoms?

• a. It determines which family member to call first.
• b. It is a critical factor in determining eligibility for treatments like tPA (thrombolytics).
• c. It helps with insurance billing.
• d. It is not important information.

Answer: b. It is a critical factor in determining eligibility for treatments like tPA (thrombolytics).

43. A second dose of naloxone may be needed for an opioid overdose because:

• a. The first dose is always too low.
• b. Many opioids have a longer duration of action than naloxone.
• c. The patient may have developed a tolerance.
• d. A second dose is never needed.

Answer: b. Many opioids have a longer duration of action than naloxone.

44. Which of the following is NOT a good source of 15g of fast-acting carbohydrate?

• a. 4 ounces of regular soda
• b. 4 glucose tablets
• c. 1 tablespoon of sugar
• d. 1 tablespoon of peanut butter

Answer: d. 1 tablespoon of peanut butter

45. What is the role of a pharmacist in a public health emergency like a pandemic?

• a. To act as a trusted source of information.
• b. To administer vaccines.
• c. To dispense emergency medications.
• d. All of the above.

Answer: d. All of the above.

46. A patient is having a syncopal (fainting) episode. You should:

• a. Slap their face to wake them up.
• b. Help them to the floor, lay them flat, and elevate their legs.
• c. Prop them up in a sitting position.
• d. Give them something to drink.

Answer: b. Help them to the floor, lay them flat, and elevate their legs.

47. Good Samaritan Laws in most places are designed to:

• a. Punish people for helping in an emergency.
• b. Protect individuals who provide reasonable assistance to those who are ill or injured from liability.
• c. Require all citizens to be trained in first aid.
• d. Pay people for helping in an emergency.

Answer: b. Protect individuals who provide reasonable assistance to those who are ill or injured from liability.

48. An AED should be used on a person who is:

• a. Unresponsive and not breathing.
• b. Awake and talking.
• c. Having a seizure.
• d. Choking.

Answer: a. Unresponsive and not breathing.

49. After an AED delivers a shock, what is the next immediate step?

• a. Re-analyze the rhythm.
• b. Check for a pulse.
• c. Resume chest compressions immediately.
• d. Deliver two rescue breaths.

Answer: c. Resume chest compressions immediately.

50. The most important action anyone can take in a medical emergency is:

• a. To take a video on their phone.
• b. To leave the scene.
• c. To call for help (activate EMS/911).
• d. To administer any medication they can find.

Answer: c. To call for help (activate EMS/911).