Macrolide antibiotics – Erythromycin, Clarithromycin, Azithromycin MCQs With Answer

Macrolide antibiotics — erythromycin, clarithromycin and azithromycin — are essential for B.Pharm students to master due to their widespread use in respiratory, soft tissue and atypical infections. This concise, keyword-rich introduction covers mechanism of action (50S ribosomal inhibition), pharmacokinetics (absorption, distribution, long tissue half-life of azithromycin), clinical spectrum, resistance mechanisms (erm methylation, mef efflux), adverse effects (GI upset, hepatotoxicity, QT prolongation), and major drug interactions (CYP3A4 inhibition). Emphasis is placed on comparative features, formulations and therapeutic uses to support exam preparation and rational dispensing. Questions include detailed pharmacology, therapeutic uses, adverse reactions and exam-style recall to boost mastery. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which is the primary mechanism of action of macrolide antibiotics?

  • Inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis
  • Inhibition of DNA gyrase
  • Inhibition of 50S ribosomal translocation
  • Disruption of bacterial cell membrane

Correct Answer: Inhibition of 50S ribosomal translocation

Q2. Macrolides bind primarily to which component of the bacterial ribosome?

  • 16S rRNA of 30S subunit
  • 23S rRNA of 50S subunit
  • 5S rRNA of 50S subunit
  • L9 ribosomal protein

Correct Answer: 23S rRNA of 50S subunit

Q3. Macrolides are particularly effective against which group of pathogens?

  • Enterobacteriaceae (e.g., E. coli)
  • Anaerobes exclusively
  • Atypical pathogens such as Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and Legionella
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Correct Answer: Atypical pathogens such as Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and Legionella

Q4. Which macrolide formulation is most acid-labile and therefore degraded in the stomach?

  • Erythromycin base
  • Azithromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

Correct Answer: Erythromycin base

Q5. Which macrolide has the longest tissue half-life allowing once-daily or short-course regimens?

  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Roxithromycin

Correct Answer: Azithromycin

Q6. Which macrolide is commonly associated with prokinetic activity via motilin receptor agonism?

  • Azithromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Erythromycin
  • Telithromycin

Correct Answer: Erythromycin

Q7. Which macrolide has the least effect on CYP3A4-mediated drug interactions?

  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Dirithromycin

Correct Answer: Azithromycin

Q8. A major cardiac safety concern shared by many macrolides is:

  • Severe hypertension
  • QT interval prolongation and risk of torsades de pointes
  • Bradycardia due to beta-blocking effects
  • Acute myocardial infarction

Correct Answer: QT interval prolongation and risk of torsades de pointes

Q9. The erm gene confers macrolide resistance by which mechanism?

  • Production of beta-lactamase enzyme
  • Efflux pump removing the drug from the cell
  • Methylation of 23S rRNA leading to target modification
  • Enzymatic hydrolysis of the macrolide lactone ring

Correct Answer: Methylation of 23S rRNA leading to target modification

Q10. Which macrolide is commonly used as part of empirical triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori eradication?

  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Linezolid

Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

Q11. Use of which macrolide in neonates has been associated with increased risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

  • Azithromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Erythromycin
  • Roxithromycin

Correct Answer: Erythromycin

Q12. Which macrolide is generally considered safest in pregnancy (category B in many sources)?

  • Erythromycin estolate
  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Telithromycin

Correct Answer: Azithromycin

Q13. Which macrolide is commonly used for prophylaxis or treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) in HIV patients?

  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Fidaxomicin

Correct Answer: Azithromycin

Q14. Co-administration of clarithromycin with warfarin is most likely to cause which effect?

  • Decreased INR and reduced anticoagulant effect
  • Increased INR and enhanced anticoagulant effect
  • No interaction
  • Immediate bleeding unrelated to INR

Correct Answer: Increased INR and enhanced anticoagulant effect

Q15. Which property explains azithromycin’s high tissue concentrations and prolonged post-antibiotic effect?

  • High renal excretion unchanged
  • Extensive intracellular accumulation in phagocytes and fibroblasts
  • Strong plasma protein binding preventing tissue uptake
  • Rapid hepatic metabolism to inactive metabolites

Correct Answer: Extensive intracellular accumulation in phagocytes and fibroblasts

Q16. Which erythromycin formulation has been associated with cholestatic hepatitis and is therefore used cautiously?

  • Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
  • Erythromycin estolate
  • Erythromycin stearate
  • Erythromycin base

Correct Answer: Erythromycin estolate

Q17. Macrolides are classified pharmacodynamically as primarily:

  • Bactericidal agents against all organisms
  • Bacteriostatic agents, although concentration-dependent killing can occur
  • Fungicidal agents
  • Virucidal agents

Correct Answer: Bacteriostatic agents, although concentration-dependent killing can occur

Q18. The current preferred macrolide for treatment of pertussis in most age groups is:

  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Doxycycline

Correct Answer: Azithromycin

Q19. Which macrolide acts as an agonist at motilin receptors and can accelerate gastric emptying?

  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Erythromycin
  • Troleandomycin

Correct Answer: Erythromycin

Q20. Which dosing feature is characteristic of azithromycin compared to erythromycin and clarithromycin?

  • Requires multiple daily dosing due to short half-life
  • Once-daily dosing and shorter courses due to long tissue half-life
  • Administered only intravenously
  • Requires co-administration with proton pump inhibitors

Correct Answer: Once-daily dosing and shorter courses due to long tissue half-life

Q21. Co-administration of which statin with clarithromycin poses a higher risk of myopathy due to CYP3A4 inhibition?

  • Pravastatin
  • Rosuvastatin
  • Atorvastatin
  • Fluvastatin

Correct Answer: Atorvastatin

Q22. Structurally, azithromycin differs from erythromycin by:

  • Being a lincosamide rather than a macrolide
  • Having a 15-membered azalide ring instead of a 14-membered macrolide ring
  • Lack of a lactone ring entirely
  • Possessing a thiazole ring substitution

Correct Answer: Having a 15-membered azalide ring instead of a 14-membered macrolide ring

Q23. Which macrolide demonstrates enhanced activity against many respiratory Gram-negative pathogens compared to erythromycin?

  • Erythromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Vancomycin
  • Trimethoprim

Correct Answer: Azithromycin

Q24. Co-administration of erythromycin with cisapride (a prokinetic) historically caused a dangerous interaction characterized by:

  • Severe hypoglycemia
  • Life-threatening QT prolongation and torsades de pointes
  • Acute renal failure due to crystal formation
  • Marked hypertension and stroke

Correct Answer: Life-threatening QT prolongation and torsades de pointes

Q25. Which macrolide is most commonly selected for community-acquired pneumonia due to atypical pathogens and used empirically in outpatient settings?

  • Vancomycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Amoxicillin
  • Metronidazole

Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

Q26. Absorption of erythromycin base is most affected by which factor?

  • Food decreases absorption of erythromycin base
  • Food increases absorption markedly
  • Antacids enhance absorption
  • Administration with dairy products prevents absorption

Correct Answer: Food decreases absorption of erythromycin base

Q27. Clarithromycin is primarily metabolized by which hepatic enzyme system?

  • CYP2D6
  • CYP3A4
  • Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
  • Glutathione S-transferase (GST)

Correct Answer: CYP3A4

Q28. For patients with a severe penicillin allergy requiring treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis, an appropriate macrolide alternative is:

  • Azithromycin
  • Gentamicin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Fluconazole

Correct Answer: Azithromycin

Q29. Which of the following antibiotics is NOT a macrolide?

  • Clarithromycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Erythromycin
  • Clindamycin

Correct Answer: Clindamycin

Q30. The mefA gene confers macrolide resistance primarily by which mechanism and phenotype?

  • Target methylation causing high-level cross-resistance (iMLS phenotype)
  • Active efflux pump producing low to moderate macrolide resistance (M phenotype)
  • Enzymatic drug inactivation with tetracycline co-resistance
  • Porin loss leading to broad Gram-negative resistance

Correct Answer: Active efflux pump producing low to moderate macrolide resistance (M phenotype)

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