Evaluation and indicators of public health MCQs With Answer

Introduction

Evaluation and indicators of public health MCQs With Answer provide B. Pharm students a focused study tool to master monitoring, evaluation and key health metrics. This concise guide covers public health indicators such as incidence, prevalence, mortality, case-fatality rate, DALY, YLL, surveillance types, indicator attributes (validity, reliability, sensitivity, specificity), data sources, and program evaluation frameworks. Understanding indicator construction, calculation, standardization and interpretation strengthens skills in health surveillance, pharmacoepidemiology and clinical program assessment. These MCQs emphasize practical calculations, interpretation of results, and selection of appropriate indicators for monitoring interventions and safety signals. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which of the following best defines a public health indicator?

• A measurable characteristic that reflects the state of a health system, population health or determinant
• An unvalidated anecdote about patient outcomes
• A qualitative opinion reported by a clinician
• A list of medications used in treatment

Correct Answer: A measurable characteristic that reflects the state of a health system, population health or determinant

Q2. Incidence rate measures which of the following?

• The number of existing cases at a point in time
• The frequency of new cases occurring in a defined population over a specified period
• The proportion of deaths among all diagnosed cases historically
• The average duration of disease in survivors

Correct Answer: The frequency of new cases occurring in a defined population over a specified period

Q3. Prevalence differs from incidence because prevalence:

• Counts only new events
• Is independent of disease duration
• Reflects both new and existing cases at a given time
• Is always lower than incidence

Correct Answer: Reflects both new and existing cases at a given time

Q4. Case fatality rate (CFR) is best defined as:

• Number of deaths in the whole population per year
• Number of deaths from a disease among diagnosed cases during a specified period divided by total cases
• Proportion of recovered patients divided by exposed individuals
• Average number of complications per case

Correct Answer: Number of deaths from a disease among diagnosed cases during a specified period divided by total cases

Q5. Which attribute of an indicator describes its ability to measure what it intends to measure?

• Reliability
• Validity
• Timeliness
• Sensitivity

Correct Answer: Validity

Q6. Sensitivity of a surveillance indicator refers to:

• The proportion of true negatives correctly identified
• The ability to detect small changes over time
• The proportion of true positives correctly identified
• The speed of reporting events to health authorities

Correct Answer: The proportion of true positives correctly identified

Q7. Which of the following is an impact indicator?

• Number of training sessions conducted
• Vaccination coverage among target population
• Reduction in disease-specific mortality over 5 years
• Stock levels of essential medicines

Correct Answer: Reduction in disease-specific mortality over 5 years

Q8. Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR) is used to:

• Compare mortality of a study population to a standard population adjusting for age
• Measure prevalence in a cross-sectional survey
• Estimate incidence from case reports only
• Assess diagnostic test specificity

Correct Answer: Compare mortality of a study population to a standard population adjusting for age

Q9. In program evaluation, a formative evaluation is primarily used to:

• Assess long-term outcomes after program completion
• Improve program design and implementation while it is being developed
• Estimate national disease burden
• Calculate case fatality rates

Correct Answer: Improve program design and implementation while it is being developed

Q10. Which data source is most appropriate for calculating national neonatal mortality rate?

• Sentinel clinical trials only
• Vital registration (birth and death) systems
• Pharmacy dispensing records
• Hospital billing data without births recorded

Correct Answer: Vital registration (birth and death) systems

Q11. Disability-Adjusted Life Year (DALY) combines which two components?

• Incidence and prevalence
• Years of life lost (YLL) and years lived with disability (YLD)
• Mortality rate and fertility rate
• Case detection rate and case fatality rate

Correct Answer: Years of life lost (YLL) and years lived with disability (YLD)

Q12. Passive surveillance is characterized by which feature?

• Active case finding by health workers
• Routine reporting from health facilities without solicitation
• Mandatory laboratory screening at community level
• Household surveys conducted monthly

Correct Answer: Routine reporting from health facilities without solicitation

Q13. Sentinel surveillance is especially useful for:

• Producing nationally representative prevalence estimates without sampling
• Monitoring trends in selected sites with high-quality data
• Replacing vital registration everywhere
• Estimating total national mortality directly

Correct Answer: Monitoring trends in selected sites with high-quality data

Q14. Which indicator type measures resources used, such as staffing and funding?

• Outcome indicators
• Impact indicators
• Input indicators
• Surveillance indicators

Correct Answer: Input indicators

Q15. A monitoring indicator should be SMART. What does the “T” in SMART commonly stand for?

• Transparent
• Timely
• Technical
• Targeted only to managers

Correct Answer: Timely

Q16. If a community has 200 new cases of disease X in a year and a mid-year population of 50,000, what is the annual incidence rate per 1,000 population?

• 0.004 per 1,000
• 4 per 1,000
• 0.004%
• 40 per 1,000

Correct Answer: 4 per 1,000

Q17. Which indicator would best measure the safety performance of spontaneous ADR (adverse drug reaction) reporting?

• Number of hospital beds per 1,000 population
• ADR reporting rate per million population
• Total prescriptions written annually
• Proportion of expired medicines in stock

Correct Answer: ADR reporting rate per million population

Q18. Reliability of an indicator most directly refers to:

• Theoretical validity
• The ability to produce consistent results under repeated measurement
• How meaningful the indicator is to policymakers
• Speed of data transmission

Correct Answer: The ability to produce consistent results under repeated measurement

Q19. Which standardization method adjusts rates to a common age distribution to enable comparisons?

• Direct standardization
• Regression imputation
• Cluster sampling
• Indirect randomization

Correct Answer: Direct standardization

Q20. Timeliness of an indicator is important because it affects:

• How well the indicator represents background noise only
• The ability to make prompt public health decisions and responses
• Only the validity but not usability of data
• Exclusively the legal status of data collectors

Correct Answer: The ability to make prompt public health decisions and responses

Q21. Which of the following is an example of an outcome indicator?

• Number of condoms distributed by a program
• Percentage reduction in HIV incidence after intervention
• Funds allocated to a program
• Number of clinics built

Correct Answer: Percentage reduction in HIV incidence after intervention

Q22. Positive predictive value (PPV) depends on which factor in addition to test sensitivity and specificity?

• Age distribution of population only
• Prevalence of the disease in the tested population
• Number of laboratories available
• Reporting format used

Correct Answer: Prevalence of the disease in the tested population

Q23. Which measure is best for assessing sudden outbreaks when you know the exposed population over a short period?

• Attack rate
• Crude birth rate
• Life expectancy
• Standard error

Correct Answer: Attack rate

Q24. During a vaccination campaign, coverage is defined as:

• The number of vaccine doses procured
• The proportion of the target population that received the vaccine
• The number of adverse events reported post-vaccination
• The total clinic visits during the campaign

Correct Answer: The proportion of the target population that received the vaccine

Q25. Which evaluation type assesses whether a program achieved its long-term objectives and impact?

• Process evaluation
• Formative evaluation
• Summative (outcome/impact) evaluation
• Operational audit of procurement

Correct Answer: Summative (outcome/impact) evaluation

Q26. The timeliness attribute primarily assesses:

• How often data collectors are promoted
• The delay between data collection and availability for action
• The complexity of the indicator definition
• The precision of laboratory assays

Correct Answer: The delay between data collection and availability for action

Q27. Which statistic would you use to compare risk of death between two cohorts accounting for time at risk?

• Prevalence ratio
• Incidence density (mortality rate per person-time)
• Cumulative incidence without time element
• Case series count

Correct Answer: Incidence density (mortality rate per person-time)

Q28. For an indicator to be useful for international comparison it should be:

• Cryptic and locally defined
• Clearly defined, standardized, and comparable across contexts
• Based solely on expert opinion
• Reported only annually with no metadata

Correct Answer: Clearly defined, standardized, and comparable across contexts

Q29. Which is the best immediate indicator to monitor effectiveness of an acute stroke unit?

• Average daily medication stock levels
• Proportion of eligible stroke patients receiving thrombolysis within recommended time window
• Number of staff meetings per month
• Total outpatient visits unrelated to stroke

Correct Answer: Proportion of eligible stroke patients receiving thrombolysis within recommended time window

Q30. What is the main advantage of routine health information systems for indicator monitoring?

• They always provide perfectly valid data
• They enable continuous, facility-based data collection for timely program monitoring
• They replace the need for surveys entirely
• They eliminate the need for data quality checks

Correct Answer: They enable continuous, facility-based data collection for timely program monitoring

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