Introduction: Public health integrates definitions and determinants to understand how population health is shaped by biological, environmental, social, behavioral, and health system factors. For B.Pharm students, mastering key public health concepts—epidemiology, prevention levels, surveillance, risk factors, health promotion, social determinants, environmental health, and pharmacovigilance—strengthens clinical judgment and community interventions. These keyword-rich MCQs focus on definitions and determinants, measurement of disease (incidence, prevalence, DALY), prevention strategies, screening principles, vaccine concepts, and the pharmacist’s role in public health. Questions progress from core definitions to applied scenarios relevant to pharmacy practice. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.
Q1. What is the best concise definition of public health?
- The science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health through organized community efforts
- Individual clinical care provided in hospitals
- Marketing of pharmaceutical products to consumers
- Private insurance management and billing
Correct Answer: The science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health through organized community efforts
Q2. Which determinant of health relates to income, education, occupation and social status?
- Biological determinant
- Environmental determinant
- Social determinant
- Behavioral determinant
Correct Answer: Social determinant
Q3. Incidence rate primarily measures which aspect of disease in a population?
- Total number of existing cases at a point in time
- Number of new cases over a specified time divided by population at risk
- Average duration of disease in survivors
- Proportion of false positives in a test
Correct Answer: Number of new cases over a specified time divided by population at risk
Q4. Prevalence differs from incidence because prevalence indicates:
- Only new cases in a period
- Existing cases (new and old) at a specific time
- Mortality associated with a disease
- Vaccine effectiveness
Correct Answer: Existing cases (new and old) at a specific time
Q5. Which of the following is a biological determinant of health?
- Air pollution levels
- Genetic predisposition to diabetes
- Access to primary care
- Health literacy
Correct Answer: Genetic predisposition to diabetes
Q6. An example of primary prevention is:
- Screening mammography
- Vaccination against measles
- Rehabilitation after stroke
- Insulin therapy for diabetes
Correct Answer: Vaccination against measles
Q7. Secondary prevention primarily aims to:
- Prevent disease occurrence
- Detect disease early and reduce progression
- Restore function after advanced disease
- Control environmental pollution
Correct Answer: Detect disease early and reduce progression
Q8. Tertiary prevention focuses on:
- Health education to prevent exposure
- Early detection of asymptomatic disease
- Rehabilitation and reducing disability from disease
- Surveillance of infectious agents in water
Correct Answer: Rehabilitation and reducing disability from disease
Q9. Which indicator measures years of life lost due to premature mortality?
- Prevalence
- Years of life lost (YLL)
- Odds ratio
- Case-fatality ratio
Correct Answer: Years of life lost (YLL)
Q10. DALY stands for:
- Daily Adjusted Life Years
- Disability-Adjusted Life Years
- Disease-Adjusted Life Years
- Diagnostic Annual Life Yield
Correct Answer: Disability-Adjusted Life Years
Q11. Herd immunity threshold refers to:
- Proportion of immune individuals needed to interrupt disease transmission
- Time needed for vaccine cold chain maintenance
- Number of doses required for individual immunity
- Proportion of false negatives in surveillance
Correct Answer: Proportion of immune individuals needed to interrupt disease transmission
Q12. Passive surveillance is characterized by:
- Active case finding by public health teams
- Routine reporting of cases by healthcare providers
- Population surveys conducted annually
- Environmental sampling of water sources only
Correct Answer: Routine reporting of cases by healthcare providers
Q13. Sensitivity of a screening test indicates:
- Ability to identify true negatives
- Ability to identify true positives
- Proportion of disease in population
- Cost-effectiveness of the test
Correct Answer: Ability to identify true positives
Q14. A high positive predictive value (PPV) depends most on:
- Test sensitivity only
- Test specificity only
- Disease prevalence in the tested population
- Laboratory turnaround time
Correct Answer: Disease prevalence in the tested population
Q15. Bradford Hill criteria are used to assess:
- Laboratory diagnostic accuracy
- Causal association between an exposure and disease
- Costing of health programs
- Pharmacokinetic parameters
Correct Answer: Causal association between an exposure and disease
Q16. Confounding in epidemiology refers to:
- A direct causal relationship between two variables
- An extraneous factor associated with both exposure and outcome that distorts the effect
- A random error due to small sample size
- Measurement precision of an instrument
Correct Answer: An extraneous factor associated with both exposure and outcome that distorts the effect
Q17. Antimicrobial resistance is primarily driven by:
- Appropriate use of vaccines
- Overuse and misuse of antibiotics in humans and animals
- High water sanitation standards
- Increased physical activity in the population
Correct Answer: Overuse and misuse of antibiotics in humans and animals
Q18. Pharmacovigilance mainly involves:
- Monitoring climate change effects
- Detecting, assessing and preventing adverse drug reactions
- Manufacturing of generic medicines
- Designing hospital architecture
Correct Answer: Detecting, assessing and preventing adverse drug reactions
Q19. Cold chain management is critical for vaccines because:
- Vaccines are stable at any temperature
- Temperature extremes can reduce vaccine potency
- It reduces vaccine cost dramatically
- It shortens the vaccination schedule
Correct Answer: Temperature extremes can reduce vaccine potency
Q20. An outbreak investigation first step is usually:
- Implementing mass vaccination
- Confirming the existence of an outbreak and verifying diagnoses
- Publishing a research paper
- Closing all healthcare facilities
Correct Answer: Confirming the existence of an outbreak and verifying diagnoses
Q21. Social determinants of health include all EXCEPT:
- Educational opportunities
- Genetic mutations inherited from parents
- Employment and working conditions
- Neighborhood safety and housing
Correct Answer: Genetic mutations inherited from parents
Q22. Environmental determinants that affect health commonly include:
- Taste preferences and hobbies
- Air quality, water quality, and chemical exposures
- Individual immune genotype only
- Insurance premiums
Correct Answer: Air quality, water quality, and chemical exposures
Q23. The basic reproduction number (R0) represents:
- Average number of secondary cases produced by one case in a fully susceptible population
- Average incubation period of a disease
- Mortality rate among infected individuals
- Number of vaccine doses needed per person
Correct Answer: Average number of secondary cases produced by one case in a fully susceptible population
Q24. Lead-time bias can affect interpretation of screening programs by:
- Making survival appear longer without changing the natural history
- Increasing test specificity artificially
- Reducing prevalence in the community
- Improving vaccine efficacy estimates
Correct Answer: Making survival appear longer without changing the natural history
Q25. Which is a key role of pharmacists in public health?
- Only dispensing medicines with no patient counseling
- Participating in vaccination, health education, and ADR reporting
- Replacing epidemiologists in outbreak investigations
- Designing surgical procedures
Correct Answer: Participating in vaccination, health education, and ADR reporting
Q26. Screening is most appropriate when the target condition is:
- Rare and rapidly fatal with no effective treatment
- Common, has a detectable preclinical phase, and has effective early treatment
- Only diagnosable at autopsy
- Associated exclusively with genetic markers unavailable to test
Correct Answer: Common, has a detectable preclinical phase, and has effective early treatment
Q27. A measure that compares disease risk in exposed versus unexposed groups is:
- Absolute risk reduction
- Relative risk (risk ratio)
- Number needed to harm
- Prevalence
Correct Answer: Relative risk (risk ratio)
Q28. A pharmacist notices unexpected cluster of adverse reactions after a new drug release; the appropriate public health action is to:
- Ignore and continue dispensing
- Report the events to pharmacovigilance authorities and support investigation
- Increase stock of the drug immediately
- Advertise the medication to increase use
Correct Answer: Report the events to pharmacovigilance authorities and support investigation
Q29. Behavioral determinants of health include:
- Diet, physical activity, tobacco and alcohol use
- Soil contamination only
- Genomic sequence variants only
- National GDP figures only
Correct Answer: Diet, physical activity, tobacco and alcohol use
Q30. Community diagnosis in public health primarily involves:
- Assessing health needs, resources, and determinants in a population
- Only prescribing medications for individuals
- Building hospital administration offices
- Setting pharmacy prices without data
Correct Answer: Assessing health needs, resources, and determinants in a population

I am a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. I hold a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research. With a strong academic foundation and practical knowledge, I am committed to providing accurate, easy-to-understand content to support pharmacy students and professionals. My aim is to make complex pharmaceutical concepts accessible and useful for real-world application.
Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com

