Chemotherapy of malignancy – principles and examples MCQs With Answer

Chemotherapy of malignancy is a core subject for B. Pharm students, covering principles, mechanisms and clinical examples of antineoplastic drugs. This introduction highlights drug classes, pharmacokinetics, cell cycle specificity, mechanisms of action, patterns of toxicity, mechanisms of resistance and key supportive measures. Emphasis is placed on rational combination therapy, dose intensity, therapeutic index and examples such as alkylating agents, antimetabolites, anthracyclines, vinca alkaloids, taxanes, platinum compounds and targeted agents. Understanding drug interactions, rescue agents (mesna, leucovorin), management of tumor lysis syndrome and the role of growth factors is essential for safe chemotherapy practice. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which is the primary mechanism of action of classical alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards?

  • Inhibition of thymidylate synthase
  • Covalent alkylation causing DNA cross-linking
  • Topoisomerase I inhibition
  • Microtubule stabilization

Correct Answer: Covalent alkylation causing DNA cross-linking

Q2. Antimetabolites like methotrexate and 5-fluorouracil are most active during which cell cycle phase?

  • G0 (resting phase)
  • G1 phase
  • S phase
  • M phase

Correct Answer: S phase

Q3. Cyclophosphamide requires metabolic activation. Where and by what is it activated to its cytotoxic metabolite?

  • Activated in plasma by esterases
  • Activated in tumor cells by thymidylate synthase
  • Activated in the liver by cytochrome P450 enzymes to phosphoramide mustard
  • Activated in the kidneys by dehydrogenases

Correct Answer: Activated in the liver by cytochrome P450 enzymes to phosphoramide mustard

Q4. Which chemoprotective agent is routinely used to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis caused by ifosfamide?

  • Leucovorin (folinic acid)
  • Mesna (sodium 2-mercaptoethane sulfonate)
  • Dexrazoxane
  • Allopurinol

Correct Answer: Mesna (sodium 2-mercaptoethane sulfonate)

Q5. Which drug is used as a ‘rescue’ agent to mitigate high-dose methotrexate toxicity?

  • Filgrastim (G-CSF)
  • Leucovorin (folinic acid)
  • Mesna
  • Rasburicase

Correct Answer: Leucovorin (folinic acid)

Q6. 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) exerts its antitumor effect primarily by inhibiting which enzyme?

  • Dihydrofolate reductase
  • Thymidylate synthase
  • Topoisomerase II
  • DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Correct Answer: Thymidylate synthase

Q7. Which of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with doxorubicin (an anthracycline) at cumulative doses?

  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Cardiomyopathy leading to congestive heart failure
  • Interstitial pneumonitis
  • Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy leading to congestive heart failure

Q8. Which agent is used to reduce doxorubicin-induced cardiotoxicity by chelating iron and reducing free-radical formation?

  • Dexrazoxane
  • Amifostine
  • Mesna
  • Allopurinol

Correct Answer: Dexrazoxane

Q9. What is the major dose-limiting toxicity of cisplatin that requires aggressive hydration and monitoring?

  • Cardiotoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Severe peripheral neuropathy
  • Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct Answer: Nephrotoxicity

Q10. Carboplatin dosing is commonly calculated using the Calvert formula. Which pharmacokinetic parameter is required by this formula?

  • Area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC) and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
  • Half-life and protein binding percentage
  • Volume of distribution and hepatic clearance
  • Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Correct Answer: Area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC) and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

Q11. Vinca alkaloids (vincristine, vinblastine) exert cytotoxicity primarily by which mechanism?

  • Inhibiting microtubule polymerization leading to metaphase arrest
  • Stabilizing microtubules and preventing depolymerization
  • Intercalating into DNA and preventing replication
  • Inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase

Correct Answer: Inhibiting microtubule polymerization leading to metaphase arrest

Q12. Taxanes (paclitaxel, docetaxel) differ from vinca alkaloids because they:

  • Inhibit topoisomerase I
  • Stabilize microtubules and prevent depolymerization
  • Cause alkylation of DNA bases
  • Are exclusively S-phase specific

Correct Answer: Stabilize microtubules and prevent depolymerization

Q13. Which toxicity is classically associated with vincristine and may limit its use?

  • Myelosuppression with profound neutropenia
  • Severe peripheral neuropathy and constipation due to autonomic dysfunction
  • Cardiotoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity

Correct Answer: Severe peripheral neuropathy and constipation due to autonomic dysfunction

Q14. Irinotecan’s active metabolite SN-38 causes which characteristic dose-limiting toxicity that requires specific management?

  • Severe mucositis only
  • Early cholinergic syndrome and late severe diarrhea managed with atropine and loperamide respectively
  • Delayed cardiomyopathy
  • Ototoxicity

Correct Answer: Early cholinergic syndrome and late severe diarrhea managed with atropine and loperamide respectively

Q15. Tumor lysis syndrome can cause life-threatening hyperuricemia. Which agent enzymatically converts uric acid to allantoin and is useful in established TLS?

  • Allopurinol
  • Probenecid
  • Rasburicase
  • Febuxostat

Correct Answer: Rasburicase

Q16. Methotrexate inhibits which enzyme, leading to depletion of thymidine and impaired DNA synthesis?

  • Thymidylate synthase
  • Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)
  • Ribonucleotide reductase
  • Topoisomerase II

Correct Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

Q17. Etoposide and doxorubicin share cytotoxic effects by targeting which cellular enzyme/process?

  • Microtubule polymerization
  • Topoisomerase II inhibition causing DNA strand breaks
  • Inhibition of nucleotide salvage pathways
  • Mitochondrial DNA synthesis inhibition

Correct Answer: Topoisomerase II inhibition causing DNA strand breaks

Q18. Overexpression of P-glycoprotein (MDR1 gene product) in tumor cells causes resistance by which mechanism?

  • Enhanced DNA repair
  • Increased drug efflux reducing intracellular drug accumulation
  • Inactivation of drug by conjugation
  • Mutation in drug target enzyme

Correct Answer: Increased drug efflux reducing intracellular drug accumulation

Q19. Which cytotoxic agent is most characteristically associated with profound myelosuppression and requires frequent blood count monitoring in acute leukemias?

  • Cisplatin
  • Cytarabine (Ara-C)
  • Bleomycin
  • Vincristine

Correct Answer: Cytarabine (Ara-C)

Q20. Which chemotherapeutic agent is well known to cause pulmonary fibrosis as a serious adverse effect?

  • Bleomycin
  • Daunorubicin
  • Oxaliplatin
  • 5-Fluorouracil

Correct Answer: Bleomycin

Q21. High inspired oxygen concentrations can exacerbate toxicity of which anticancer drug during anesthesia or oxygen therapy?

  • Doxorubicin
  • Bleomycin
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Vinblastine

Correct Answer: Bleomycin

Q22. Which of the following agents is considered cell cycle non-specific and can kill resting as well as dividing tumor cells?

  • Fluorouracil (5-FU)
  • Bleomycin
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Cytarabine

Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide

Q23. 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) requires activation by which enzyme to become incorporated into nucleic acids?

  • Xanthine oxidase
  • Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
  • Dihydrofolate reductase
  • Glutathione S-transferase

Correct Answer: Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)

Q24. Concurrent use of allopurinol with which chemotherapeutic agent necessitates a dose reduction due to impaired drug metabolism?

  • 5-Fluorouracil
  • 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) / Azathioprine
  • Paclitaxel
  • Bleomycin

Correct Answer: 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) / Azathioprine

Q25. Hemorrhagic cystitis is a known complication of which chemotherapeutic agent, due to the metabolite acrolein?

  • Ifosfamide and cyclophosphamide
  • Cisplatin
  • Vincristine
  • Methotrexate

Correct Answer: Ifosfamide and cyclophosphamide

Q26. Imatinib is a targeted therapy that inhibits which oncogenic tyrosine kinase fusion protein commonly seen in chronic myeloid leukemia?

  • HER2/neu
  • BCR-ABL
  • EGFR mutant T790M
  • ALK fusion protein

Correct Answer: BCR-ABL

Q27. Trastuzumab targets HER2-positive breast cancer but requires monitoring for which organ toxicity?

  • Renal failure
  • Cardiotoxicity (reduced left ventricular ejection fraction)
  • Hepatic necrosis
  • Severe pulmonary fibrosis

Correct Answer: Cardiotoxicity (reduced left ventricular ejection fraction)

Q28. Rituximab exerts antitumor effects primarily by binding to which antigen on B cells?

  • CD20
  • CD3
  • HER2
  • VEGF receptor

Correct Answer: CD20

Q29. The concept of dose-dense chemotherapy is based on which pharmacologic/biologic principle?

  • Giving higher single doses at longer intervals to increase peak concentration
  • Reducing cumulative dose to minimize toxicity
  • Shortening intervals between cycles to prevent tumor regrowth and maximize cell kill (increase dose intensity)
  • Administering drugs only during G0 phase to target resting cells

Correct Answer: Shortening intervals between cycles to prevent tumor regrowth and maximize cell kill (increase dose intensity)

Q30. One rationale for using combination chemotherapy regimens is to:

  • Use drugs with identical mechanisms to amplify a single pathway
  • Combine drugs with overlapping toxicities to ensure dose reductions
  • Employ agents with different mechanisms and non-overlapping toxicities to enhance tumor kill and reduce resistance
  • Avoid supportive care measures

Correct Answer: Employ agents with different mechanisms and non-overlapping toxicities to enhance tumor kill and reduce resistance

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