Basic concepts in endocrine pharmacology MCQs With Answer

Basic concepts in endocrine pharmacology MCQs With Answer introduces B.Pharm students to core principles of hormone action, drug classes, mechanisms, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, adverse effects and therapeutic uses. This concise, keyword-rich primer covers insulin and oral antidiabetics, thyroid and antithyroid agents, corticosteroids, mineralocorticoids, sex hormones, peptide hormones, receptor types (GPCR, nuclear receptors, RTKs), and endocrine drug interactions. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, dose-response, monitoring parameters, contraindications and molecular targets to deepen understanding beyond memorization. Clear clinical scenarios and mechanism-based questions prepare students for exams and practice. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which class of hormones is generally water-soluble and acts on cell surface receptors?

  • Thyroid hormones
  • Steroid hormones
  • Peptide hormones
  • Steroid-derived corticosteroids

Correct Answer: Peptide hormones

Q2. Which receptor type mediates the actions of catecholamines like epinephrine on heart rate?

  • Nuclear receptor
  • G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)
  • Receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK)
  • Ligand-gated ion channel

Correct Answer: G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)

Q3. Levothyroxine replacement therapy primarily provides which of the following?

  • Active T3 (triiodothyronine) only
  • Synthetic T4 (thyroxine) that is peripherally converted to T3
  • An inhibitor of thyroid peroxidase
  • A direct antagonist of thyroid hormone receptors

Correct Answer: Synthetic T4 (thyroxine) that is peripherally converted to T3

Q4. Methimazole exerts its antithyroid effect by inhibiting which step?

  • Peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
  • Iodination and coupling steps catalyzed by thyroid peroxidase
  • TSH secretion from the pituitary
  • Iodine uptake into the thyroid gland

Correct Answer: Iodination and coupling steps catalyzed by thyroid peroxidase

Q5. Sulfonylureas lower blood glucose primarily by which mechanism?

  • Reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis
  • Increasing urinary glucose excretion
  • Closing pancreatic beta-cell KATP channels to stimulate insulin release
  • Activating PPAR-γ to improve insulin sensitivity

Correct Answer: Closing pancreatic beta-cell KATP channels to stimulate insulin release

Q6. Metformin’s major antidiabetic action is due to:

  • Stimulating pancreatic insulin secretion
  • Inhibiting renal glucose reabsorption
  • Decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving insulin sensitivity
  • Activating incretin receptors

Correct Answer: Decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis and improving insulin sensitivity

Q7. Which of the following is a GLP-1 receptor agonist used to enhance glucose-dependent insulin secretion?

  • Glibenclamide
  • Exenatide
  • Pioglitazone
  • Metformin

Correct Answer: Exenatide

Q8. SGLT2 inhibitors reduce blood glucose by:

  • Stimulating insulin release from beta cells
  • Inhibiting intestinal glucose absorption
  • Blocking renal proximal tubule glucose reabsorption
  • Activating glucokinase in the liver

Correct Answer: Blocking renal proximal tubule glucose reabsorption

Q9. Glucocorticoid receptors are located primarily in the:

  • Cell membrane where they act as ion channels
  • Cytosol and translocate to the nucleus to modify gene transcription
  • Mitochondria to alter ATP synthesis
  • Extracellular matrix to bind circulating cortisol

Correct Answer: Cytosol and translocate to the nucleus to modify gene transcription

Q10. Aldosterone’s main renal effect is to:

  • Increase potassium reabsorption and sodium excretion
  • Increase sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion
  • Decrease water reabsorption in the collecting duct
  • Inhibit renin release from the juxtaglomerular cells

Correct Answer: Increase sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion

Q11. Spironolactone reduces blood pressure by acting as a:

  • ACE inhibitor
  • Beta-blocker
  • Aldosterone receptor antagonist
  • Loop diuretic

Correct Answer: Aldosterone receptor antagonist

Q12. Ketoconazole can be used off-label in Cushing’s syndrome because it:

  • Acts as a glucocorticoid receptor agonist
  • Stimulates ACTH release
  • Inhibits adrenal steroid synthesis enzymes thus lowering cortisol
  • Increases renal cortisol clearance

Correct Answer: Inhibits adrenal steroid synthesis enzymes thus lowering cortisol

Q13. Octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, treats acromegaly primarily by:

  • Blocking GH receptor signalling in peripheral tissues
  • Inhibiting pituitary GH secretion via somatostatin receptors
  • Stimulating IGF-1 degradation in the liver
  • Antagonizing GHRH at the hypothalamus

Correct Answer: Inhibiting pituitary GH secretion via somatostatin receptors

Q14. Bromocriptine treats hyperprolactinemia by:

  • Blocking prolactin receptors
  • Stimulating dopamine D2 receptors to inhibit prolactin release
  • Inhibiting pituitary TSH secretion
  • Acting as an estrogen receptor antagonist

Correct Answer: Stimulating dopamine D2 receptors to inhibit prolactin release

Q15. Desmopressin is effective in central diabetes insipidus because it:

  • Antagonizes V2 receptors in the kidney
  • Stimulates V2 receptors increasing water reabsorption in collecting ducts
  • Inhibits aldosterone secretion
  • Blocks aquaporin insertion into the collecting duct

Correct Answer: Stimulates V2 receptors increasing water reabsorption in collecting ducts

Q16. A laboratory profile showing low TSH and elevated free T4 is most consistent with:

  • Primary hypothyroidism
  • Secondary hypothyroidism
  • Primary hyperthyroidism
  • Central hypothyroidism

Correct Answer: Primary hyperthyroidism

Q17. One important thrombotic risk associated with systemic estrogen therapy is:

  • Reduced LDL cholesterol leading to bleeding
  • Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
  • Hyperkalemia due to aldosterone antagonism
  • Decreased platelet aggregation and hemorrhage

Correct Answer: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism

Q18. First-line immediate treatment for severe symptomatic hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient is:

  • Oral glucose tablets
  • Subcutaneous insulin
  • Intravenous 50% dextrose (glucose) solution
  • Oral metformin

Correct Answer: Intravenous 50% dextrose (glucose) solution

Q19. Bisphosphonates reduce bone resorption by inhibiting which enzymatic pathway in osteoclasts?

  • Cyclooxygenase pathway
  • Mevalonate pathway including farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase
  • Glycolysis
  • RANK-RANKL signalling directly

Correct Answer: Mevalonate pathway including farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase

Q20. Denosumab treats osteoporosis by targeting which molecule?

  • Osteoprotegerin (OPG)
  • Calcitonin receptor
  • RANK ligand (RANKL)
  • Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Correct Answer: RANK ligand (RANKL)

Q21. Long-term systemic glucocorticoid therapy most commonly requires monitoring of which parameter?

  • Fasting blood glucose and signs of hyperglycemia
  • Serum magnesium exclusively
  • Bilirubin levels only
  • Thyroid autoantibodies

Correct Answer: Fasting blood glucose and signs of hyperglycemia

Q22. Which hormone is synthesized in the posterior pituitary and released directly into the bloodstream from there?

  • TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)
  • Growth hormone (GH)
  • Oxytocin
  • ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

Correct Answer: Oxytocin

Q23. Thiazolidinediones (e.g., pioglitazone) exert antidiabetic effects primarily via:

  • Inhibition of SGLT2 in the kidney
  • PPAR-γ activation to increase insulin sensitivity in adipose and muscle
  • Stimulating pancreatic beta-cell proliferation
  • Blocking intestinal carbohydrate absorption

Correct Answer: PPAR-γ activation to increase insulin sensitivity in adipose and muscle

Q24. A serious adverse effect of propylthiouracil (PTU) that requires monitoring is:

  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • Hepatotoxicity and severe liver injury
  • Prolonged QT leading to torsades de pointes
  • Pancreatic beta-cell hyperplasia

Correct Answer: Hepatotoxicity and severe liver injury

Q25. Which therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy for treating hyperthyroidism?

  • Propylthiouracil during first trimester only
  • Methimazole across all trimesters
  • Radioactive iodine (I-131)
  • Beta-blockers for symptomatic control

Correct Answer: Radioactive iodine (I-131)

Q26. Fludrocortisone is used in adrenal insufficiency primarily for its:

  • Antiinflammatory glucocorticoid effects
  • Mineralocorticoid activity to maintain sodium balance
  • Estrogenic effects to regulate menstrual cycle
  • Androgenic anabolic actions

Correct Answer: Mineralocorticoid activity to maintain sodium balance

Q27. Levothyroxine therapy can alter the effect of warfarin by:

  • Decreasing warfarin’s anticoagulant effect leading to thrombosis
  • Increasing warfarin’s anticoagulant effect by enhancing clotting factor turnover
  • Directly inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase
  • Binding warfarin in plasma and reducing bioavailability

Correct Answer: Increasing warfarin’s anticoagulant effect by enhancing clotting factor turnover

Q28. Hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis stimulated by catecholamines in the liver are mainly mediated via which adrenergic receptor subtype?

  • Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
  • Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
  • Beta-2 adrenergic receptor
  • Muscarinic M3 receptor

Correct Answer: Beta-2 adrenergic receptor

Q29. Which drug is an 11β-hydroxylase inhibitor used diagnostically and therapeutically to reduce cortisol synthesis in Cushing’s syndrome?

  • Metyrapone
  • Spironolactone
  • Hydrocortisone
  • Fludrocortisone

Correct Answer: Metyrapone

Q30. For basal insulin coverage in diabetes management, which insulin analogue is commonly used due to its long duration and flat profile?

  • Insulin lispro
  • Insulin regular (short-acting)
  • Insulin glargine
  • Insulin aspart

Correct Answer: Insulin glargine

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