Assessment of microbial contamination MCQs With Answer is an essential study resource for B.Pharm students preparing for exams and practicals in pharmaceutical microbiology. This concise, keyword-rich introduction covers microbial contamination assessment, bioburden testing, sterility testing, environmental monitoring, endotoxin limits, aseptic processing, and validation principles used in QA/QC and GMP. These MCQs focus on methods like plate counts, membrane filtration, MPN, ATP bioluminescence, air and surface sampling, and regulatory expectations from pharmacopeias and ISO standards. Each question is designed to deepen understanding of contamination control, risk assessment, and laboratory techniques critical to pharmaceutical manufacturing. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.
Q1. What is the best definition of microbial contamination in pharmaceuticals?
- Presence of any chemical impurities in a drug product
- Presence of unwanted microorganisms in a drug product or process environment
- Intentional addition of probiotics to formulations
- Physical damage to packaging materials
Correct Answer: Presence of unwanted microorganisms in a drug product or process environment
Q2. What is the purpose of a bioburden test?
- To measure endotoxin levels in a sterile product
- To determine the number of viable microorganisms present before sterilization
- To check chemical potency of an antibiotic
- To detect viral contaminants only
Correct Answer: To determine the number of viable microorganisms present before sterilization
Q3. Which methods are commonly accepted for pharmacopeial sterility testing?
- Gram staining and microscopy
- Membrane filtration and direct inoculation (direct transfer) into culture media
- ATP bioluminescence only
- Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) only
Correct Answer: Membrane filtration and direct inoculation (direct transfer) into culture media
Q4. What is the commonly required sterility assurance level (SAL) for terminally sterilized parenterals?
- 10^0
- 10^-3
- 10^-6
- 10^-9
Correct Answer: 10^-6
Q5. Which assay is most widely used for bacterial endotoxin testing?
- Western blot
- Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) assay
- Gram staining
- ELISA for proteins
Correct Answer: Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) assay
Q6. Which air sampling technique actively draws a known volume of air to quantify airborne microorganisms?
- Settle plate (passive) method
- Contact plate method
- Volumetric (active) air sampling
- Surface swabbing
Correct Answer: Volumetric (active) air sampling
Q7. What is the primary advantage of membrane filtration for sterility testing of bulk liquids?
- It removes endotoxins completely
- It concentrates microorganisms from large volumes onto a membrane for incubation
- It measures viral particles accurately
- It sterilizes the product during testing
Correct Answer: It concentrates microorganisms from large volumes onto a membrane for incubation
Q8. Which method is suitable for rapid, non-culture detection of viable microorganisms by measuring cellular ATP?
- MPN (Most Probable Number)
- ATP bioluminescence
- Gram staining
- Endotoxin LAL test
Correct Answer: ATP bioluminescence
Q9. What does CFU stand for in microbial contamination assessment?
- Colony Forming Unit
- Cell Formation Unit
- Contaminant Fungal Unit
- Certified Fungal Understanding
Correct Answer: Colony Forming Unit
Q10. Which of the following is a quantitative method to estimate low levels of bacteria in water using statistical probability?
- Direct microscopy
- Most Probable Number (MPN)
- Settle plate
- Gram staining
Correct Answer: Most Probable Number (MPN)
Q11. Which environmental monitoring sample is best for assessing viable organisms on personnel gloves?
- Air volumetric sampling
- Contact plate (RODAC) method
- Settle plate exposed to air
- Surface conductivity test
Correct Answer: Contact plate (RODAC) method
Q12. Which medium is commonly used for total aerobic bacterial counts in pharmaceutical QC?
- Sabouraud dextrose agar
- Nutrient agar or tryptic soy agar
- MacConkey agar
- Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar
Correct Answer: Nutrient agar or tryptic soy agar
Q13. For fungal counts in environmental monitoring, which incubation temperature is typically used?
- 37°C
- 20–25°C
- 50°C
- 4°C
Correct Answer: 20–25°C
Q14. What is the role of a negative control in sterility testing?
- To show the media supports growth
- To demonstrate absence of contamination from the test procedure
- To add known bacteria to the test
- To neutralize disinfectant residues
Correct Answer: To demonstrate absence of contamination from the test procedure
Q15. Which organism is commonly used as a biological indicator for steam (moist heat) sterilization validation?
- Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus)
- Bacillus subtilis var. niger
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: Bacillus stearothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus)
Q16. Which parameter indicates thermal resistance of microorganisms and is defined as the time required at a given temperature to reduce population by 90%?
- Z-value
- D-value
- F0 value
- SAL
Correct Answer: D-value
Q17. What does the Z-value represent in sterilization kinetics?
- Time to achieve sterility at a given temperature
- Temperature change required to change the D-value by one log
- Initial microbial load
- Sterility assurance level
Correct Answer: Temperature change required to change the D-value by one log
Q18. Which of the following is a common indicator organism for assessing water quality in pharmaceutical processes?
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Clostridium botulinum
- Influenza virus
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q19. Which cleaning validation parameter specifically measures removal of microbial contamination?
- pH of rinse solution
- Microbial bioburden before and after cleaning
- Total organic carbon only
- Visual inspection score
Correct Answer: Microbial bioburden before and after cleaning
Q20. What is the primary risk associated with fungal contamination in sterile manufacturing?
- Only aesthetic defects
- Allergenic or invasive infections and compromised product quality
- Reduced drug potency by chemical reaction
- Increased viscosity of solutions
Correct Answer: Allergenic or invasive infections and compromised product quality
Q21. Which test is used to detect mycoplasma contamination in cell cultures and some biologicals?
- Gram staining
- Culture on specialized media and PCR-based assays
- LAL test
- Endospore staining
Correct Answer: Culture on specialized media and PCR-based assays
Q22. Which of the following best describes a settle plate method?
- An active air sampler that counts particles electronically
- A passive method where plates are exposed to air to capture settling particles
- A surface swab technique
- A membrane filtration of air
Correct Answer: A passive method where plates are exposed to air to capture settling particles
Q23. In microbial limits testing, what is the purpose of inhibition testing?
- To determine the presence of viruses
- To check whether product components inhibit microbial growth, interfering with detection
- To measure endotoxin content
- To test for chemical impurities
Correct Answer: To check whether product components inhibit microbial growth, interfering with detection
Q24. Which disinfectant characteristic is most critical for routine pharmaceutical environmental control?
- Color of the disinfectant
- Broad-spectrum efficacy and validated contact time
- Ability to act as a preservative in formulations
- Smell
Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum efficacy and validated contact time
Q25. What is the main objective of environmental monitoring in sterile areas?
- To ensure lights are functioning
- To monitor trends in viable and non-viable contamination and ensure aseptic conditions
- To assess chemical purity of air
- To measure humidity only
Correct Answer: To monitor trends in viable and non-viable contamination and ensure aseptic conditions
Q26. Which organism is typically used as a biological indicator for dry heat sterilization?
- Geobacillus stearothermophilus
- Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly Bacillus subtilis var. niger)
- Escherichia coli
- Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Correct Answer: Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly Bacillus subtilis var. niger)
Q27. Which parameter is critical when validating filtration sterilization (sterile filtration) of a liquid?
- Filter pore size (e.g., 0.22 µm) and integrity testing
- pH of the filtrate only
- Color of the filter
- Atmospheric pressure in the lab
Correct Answer: Filter pore size (e.g., 0.22 µm) and integrity testing
Q28. What is the significance of incubation conditions in microbial enumeration tests?
- They only affect fungal growth
- Temperature and time determine which organisms will grow and be detected
- They sterilize the plates
- They are only needed for endotoxin tests
Correct Answer: Temperature and time determine which organisms will grow and be detected
Q29. Which selective medium is commonly used to isolate Gram-negative enteric pathogens?
- Blood agar
- MacConkey agar
- SDA (Sabouraud Dextrose Agar)
- YGC agar
Correct Answer: MacConkey agar
Q30. In a microbial limits test, which outcome would indicate the product passes specification?
- Total viable count exceeds specified limit
- No specified objectionable organisms and counts within allowed limits
- Presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Growth in sterility test controls
Correct Answer: No specified objectionable organisms and counts within allowed limits
Q31. Which factor most influences recovery of microorganisms from surface swabs?
- Swab material and neutralizer, sampling technique, and contact pressure
- Color of the swab
- Time of day only
- Humidity only
Correct Answer: Swab material and neutralizer, sampling technique, and contact pressure
Q32. What is an objectionable organism in pharmaceutical microbiology?
- An organism with no clinical relevance
- An organism whose presence may cause harm or affect product safety or efficacy
- A beneficial probiotic
- An organism used as a biological indicator
Correct Answer: An organism whose presence may cause harm or affect product safety or efficacy
Q33. Which regulation or guidance commonly defines microbial limits and sterility requirements for pharmaceuticals?
- Pharmacopeias (USP, Ph. Eur., IP) and regulatory guidance (FDA, EMA)
- Local school laboratory manual only
- ISO 9001 exclusively
- Food recipes
Correct Answer: Pharmacopeias (USP, Ph. Eur., IP) and regulatory guidance (FDA, EMA)
Q34. Why is neutralization of disinfectant residues important when sampling surfaces for microbiological testing?
- Neutralizers accelerate microbial growth
- To prevent residual disinfectant from killing microbes and giving false low counts
- To change the swab color
- Neutralizers are not required
Correct Answer: To prevent residual disinfectant from killing microbes and giving false low counts
Q35. Which rapid method can identify organisms by analyzing biochemical or mass spectral fingerprints?
- Gram staining
- MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry
- Settle plate
- MPN
Correct Answer: MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry
Q36. What is the principle of the membrane filtration technique for microbial enumeration?
- Dilution until no growth is visible
- Filtering a known volume through a membrane that retains microorganisms, then incubating the membrane on agar
- Counting particles with a microscope without culture
- Using PCR to quantify DNA
Correct Answer: Filtering a known volume through a membrane that retains microorganisms, then incubating the membrane on agar
Q37. Which practice reduces risk of contamination during aseptic operations?
- Loose gowning and frequent face touching
- Proper aseptic technique, validated procedures, and appropriate gowning
- Working faster regardless of technique
- Eating near the work area
Correct Answer: Proper aseptic technique, validated procedures, and appropriate gowning
Q38. What is the main limitation of culture-based environmental monitoring?
- It detects viruses well
- It may not detect viable but non-culturable organisms and is time-consuming
- It provides instant results
- It requires no incubation
Correct Answer: It may not detect viable but non-culturable organisms and is time-consuming
Q39. In sterility testing, why are both aerobic and anaerobic media used?
- To increase incubation cost
- To detect organisms that grow under different oxygen conditions
- Because media color varies
- To speed up results
Correct Answer: To detect organisms that grow under different oxygen conditions
Q40. Which action is recommended when an environmental monitoring alert or excursion occurs?
- Ignore a single high count
- Investigate root cause, review operations, and implement corrective actions
- Immediately stop all production permanently
- Replace monitoring equipment only
Correct Answer: Investigate root cause, review operations, and implement corrective actions
Q41. What does RODAC stand for in surface monitoring?
- Reduction of Organisms by Direct Aseptic Contact
- Replicate Organism Detection and Counting (contact) plate
- Rapid Oligonucleotide Detection and Culturing
- Randomized Operational Data and Culture
Correct Answer: Replicate Organism Detection and Counting (contact) plate
Q42. Which parameter is critical for interpreting viable air counts?
- Volume of air sampled and sampler efficiency
- Color of agar
- Brand of incubator
- Sampling technician’s age
Correct Answer: Volume of air sampled and sampler efficiency
Q43. Which microbiological test specifically measures pyrogenic substances from Gram-negative bacteria?
- Sterility test
- Endotoxin (LAL) test
- Total viable count
- Mycoplasma culture
Correct Answer: Endotoxin (LAL) test
Q44. What is the recommended action if a sterility test control shows growth?
- Report product as sterile immediately
- Invalidate the test run, investigate contamination source, and repeat testing
- Ignore the control
- Discard controls only
Correct Answer: Invalidate the test run, investigate contamination source, and repeat testing
Q45. Which term describes organisms that survive and grow in disinfectant solutions?
- Disinfectant-susceptible organisms
- Disinfectant-resistant organisms or biofilm formers
- Endospore-free organisms
- Gram-positive only
Correct Answer: Disinfectant-resistant organisms or biofilm formers
Q46. Which technique can be used to test filter integrity after sterile filtration?
- Bubble point or diffusion test
- Gram staining
- Endotoxin assay
- Settle plate exposure
Correct Answer: Bubble point or diffusion test
Q47. Which of the following best describes microbial trend analysis in environmental monitoring?
- Single data point review only
- Statistical evaluation of monitoring data over time to detect shifts or excursions
- Visual inspection of equipment daily
- Counting only fungal colonies annually
Correct Answer: Statistical evaluation of monitoring data over time to detect shifts or excursions
Q48. What is the effect of high organic load on disinfection efficacy?
- Enhances disinfectant activity
- Can neutralize disinfectants and reduce efficacy
- Has no effect
- Makes surfaces sterile instantly
Correct Answer: Can neutralize disinfectants and reduce efficacy
Q49. Which sampling frequency is most appropriate for critical Grade A/B aseptic operations?
- Never sample
- Frequent and routine monitoring with defined schedules and immediate sampling during operations
- Once a year
- Only after a contamination event
Correct Answer: Frequent and routine monitoring with defined schedules and immediate sampling during operations
Q50. Which statement best summarizes the goal of assessment of microbial contamination in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
- To achieve the lowest possible production costs
- To detect, control, and prevent microbial contamination to ensure product safety, efficacy, and regulatory compliance
- To replace all manual testing with visual checks
- To increase microbiological testing without corrective actions
Correct Answer: To detect, control, and prevent microbial contamination to ensure product safety, efficacy, and regulatory compliance

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