Artificial respiration MCQs With Answer

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Introduction

Artificial respiration MCQs With Answer is an essential resource for B. Pharm students preparing for pharmacology, clinical pharmacy, and hospital pharmacy exams. This focused set covers physiology of breathing, manual ventilation techniques (mouth-to-mouth, bag-valve-mask), indications, complications, oxygen therapy, basic ventilator concepts, and drug-related causes of respiratory depression. Clear explanations reinforce clinical decision-making, airway management basics, and interpretation of arterial blood gases relevant to respiratory support. SEO keywords included: artificial respiration, MCQs, B. Pharm, ventilation, resuscitation, oxygen therapy, respiratory pharmacology. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is the primary purpose of artificial respiration?

  • To reduce fever
  • To restore or maintain adequate ventilation and oxygenation
  • To treat infections of the airway
  • To provide nutrition

Correct Answer: To restore or maintain adequate ventilation and oxygenation

Q2. Which technique is considered a form of artificial respiration for a single rescuer without equipment?

  • Bag-valve-mask ventilation
  • Mouth-to-mouth ventilation
  • Endotracheal intubation
  • Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation

Correct Answer: Mouth-to-mouth ventilation

Q3. In the initial management of an adult cardiac arrest, what is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for a single rescuer trained in CPR?

  • 30:2
  • 15:2
  • 5:1
  • 10:2

Correct Answer: 30:2

Q4. Which device supplies higher oxygen concentration during artificial ventilation and is commonly used in hospitals?

  • Simple face mask
  • Nasal cannula
  • Bag-valve-mask (Ambu bag) connected to oxygen
  • Non-rebreather pocket mask

Correct Answer: Bag-valve-mask (Ambu bag) connected to oxygen

Q5. Which of the following is a contraindication to mouth-to-mouth ventilation?

  • Presence of a secure airway
  • Risk of infectious disease transmission
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Surgical airway already established

Correct Answer: Risk of infectious disease transmission

Q6. During bag-valve-mask ventilation, what common complication must be avoided by proper technique?

  • Hypoglycemia
  • Gastric insufflation and aspiration
  • Hypertension
  • Excessive sweating

Correct Answer: Gastric insufflation and aspiration

Q7. Which gas parameter most directly reflects oxygenation status in arterial blood?

  • PaCO2
  • HCO3-
  • PaO2
  • pH

Correct Answer: PaO2

Q8. Which of the following drugs can cause respiratory depression requiring artificial respiration or ventilatory support?

  • Acetaminophen
  • Morphine
  • Furosemide
  • Metformin

Correct Answer: Morphine

Q9. What is the recommended tidal volume for manual ventilation of an adult using a bag-valve-mask to avoid lung injury?

  • 10–12 mL/kg
  • 6–8 mL/kg
  • 2–3 mL/kg
  • 15–20 mL/kg

Correct Answer: 6–8 mL/kg

Q10. Which sign indicates inadequate ventilation during artificial respiration?

  • Rising SpO2 to 99%
  • Visible chest rise and fall
  • Absent or minimal chest rise
  • Normal breath sounds bilaterally

Correct Answer: Absent or minimal chest rise

Q11. In neonatal resuscitation, which technique is preferred for positive pressure ventilation?

  • Adult-sized bag-valve-mask without reservoir
  • T-piece resuscitator or neonatal bag-valve-mask with appropriate size
  • Mouth-to-mouth
  • High-frequency oscillatory ventilation outside the delivery room

Correct Answer: T-piece resuscitator or neonatal bag-valve-mask with appropriate size

Q12. Which arterial blood gas finding indicates respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation?

  • Low PaCO2 and high pH
  • High PaCO2 and low pH
  • High HCO3- with normal PaCO2
  • Low PaO2 with high pH

Correct Answer: High PaCO2 and low pH

Q13. Which maneuver helps open the airway for artificial respiration in an unconscious adult without trauma?

  • Jaw-thrust
  • Fowler’s position
  • Head tilt–chin lift
  • Trendelenburg position

Correct Answer: Head tilt–chin lift

Q14. Which of the following best describes the purpose of PEEP (positive end-expiratory pressure) in mechanical ventilation?

  • To decrease cardiac output intentionally
  • To increase functional residual capacity and improve oxygenation
  • To hyperventilate the patient
  • To reduce airway secretions

Correct Answer: To increase functional residual capacity and improve oxygenation

Q15. Which medication is an antidote for opioid-induced respiratory depression?

  • Flumazenil
  • Naloxone
  • Atropine
  • Activated charcoal

Correct Answer: Naloxone

Q16. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices can deliver the highest fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) in emergency preoxygenation?

  • Nasal cannula
  • Simple face mask
  • Non-rebreather mask with reservoir
  • Venturi mask

Correct Answer: Non-rebreather mask with reservoir

Q17. A bag-valve-mask should be held with which grip to ensure an open airway and good seal?

  • One-handed over-the-head hold
  • E-C clamp technique (two-handed jaw support, one-handed bag squeeze)
  • Pinch-nose technique without head support
  • Single finger chin lift

Correct Answer: E-C clamp technique (two-handed jaw support, one-handed bag squeeze)

Q18. Hyperventilation during artificial respiration can cause which immediate physiological effect?

  • Elevated PaCO2
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Reduced cerebral blood flow due to hypocapnia
  • Improved oxygen unloading at tissues

Correct Answer: Reduced cerebral blood flow due to hypocapnia

Q19. In a patient with suspected cervical spine injury, which airway-opening maneuver is preferred?

  • Head tilt–chin lift
  • Jaw-thrust without head extension
  • Neck hyperextension
  • Blind finger sweep

Correct Answer: Jaw-thrust without head extension

Q20. Which parameter on a ventilator represents the number of breaths delivered per minute?

  • Tidal volume
  • FiO2
  • Respiratory rate
  • Inspiratory time

Correct Answer: Respiratory rate

Q21. Which condition is an indication for assisted ventilation or intubation rather than simple oxygen therapy?

  • Mild asthma with normal mental status
  • Progressive respiratory fatigue with rising PaCO2
  • Isolated headache
  • Stable COPD with baseline hypoxia

Correct Answer: Progressive respiratory fatigue with rising PaCO2

Q22. Which of the following best describes “apnea” in the context of artificial respiration?

  • Rapid shallow breathing
  • Absence of spontaneous breathing
  • Slow but adequate breathing
  • Irregular breathing pattern

Correct Answer: Absence of spontaneous breathing

Q23. Which physiological reflex increases ventilation in response to rising PaCO2?

  • Baroreceptor reflex
  • Hering-Breuer reflex
  • Central chemoreceptor response
  • Oculocephalic reflex

Correct Answer: Central chemoreceptor response

Q24. For a patient with opioid overdose and respiratory depression, after administering naloxone, what should the rescuer monitor closely?

  • Blood glucose only
  • Return of spontaneous respirations and possible acute pain or withdrawal
  • Immediate need for antibiotics
  • Renal function hourly

Correct Answer: Return of spontaneous respirations and possible acute pain or withdrawal

Q25. Which vent mode delivers a set tidal volume for each breath independent of patient effort?

  • Pressure support ventilation
  • Volume-controlled ventilation
  • CPAP
  • Spontaneous breathing trial

Correct Answer: Volume-controlled ventilation

Q26. During resuscitation, what is the recommended initial concentration of oxygen to provide to most patients?

  • Room air only (21%)
  • High-concentration oxygen (close to 100%) for resuscitation
  • 40% oxygen fixed
  • 10% oxygen

Correct Answer: High-concentration oxygen (close to 100%) for resuscitation

Q27. Which sign indicates adequate chest compression quality during CPR in adults?

  • Compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) at 100–120/min
  • Very slow compressions at 30/min
  • Complete release not required
  • Compression depth of 0.5 inch

Correct Answer: Compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) at 100–120/min

Q28. What is the primary risk when ventilating a patient with high airway pressures?

  • Improved oxygenation without risks
  • Barotrauma such as pneumothorax
  • Hypoventilation
  • Increased renal perfusion

Correct Answer: Barotrauma such as pneumothorax

Q29. Which antibiotic class can cause neuromuscular blockade or enhance it, potentially affecting respiration?

  • Beta-lactams
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Macrolides
  • Tetracyclines

Correct Answer: Aminoglycosides

Q30. Which of the following is the best immediate action if a bag-valve-mask ventilated patient becomes less responsive and the chest is not rising?

  • Increase ventilation rate to 40/min
  • Reassess airway position, re-open airway and check for obstruction
  • Stop ventilation completely
  • Start antibiotics

Correct Answer: Reassess airway position, re-open airway and check for obstruction

Q31. Which arterial blood gas change suggests alveolar hypoventilation?

  • Low PaCO2
  • High PaCO2
  • High pH
  • High HCO3- only

Correct Answer: High PaCO2

Q32. In the context of artificial respiration, what does FiO2 represent?

  • Forced inspiratory oxygen flow
  • Fraction of inspired oxygen
  • Functional inspiratory output
  • Frequency of inspiration

Correct Answer: Fraction of inspired oxygen

Q33. Which is a pharmacological agent used to facilitate airway secretion clearance in respiratory-compromised patients?

  • Antitussives like dextromethorphan
  • Mucolytics like N-acetylcysteine
  • Beta-blockers
  • Loop diuretics

Correct Answer: Mucolytics like N-acetylcysteine

Q34. What is the primary concern with providing excessive oxygen to certain COPD patients?

  • Oxygen toxicity within minutes
  • Suppression of hypoxic respiratory drive leading to CO2 retention
  • Immediate bronchospasm
  • Increased renal clearance of medications

Correct Answer: Suppression of hypoxic respiratory drive leading to CO2 retention

Q35. Which maneuver is used to relieve choking in a conscious adult with severe airway obstruction?

  • Back blows only
  • Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrusts)
  • Head tilt–chin lift
  • Endotracheal intubation by bystander

Correct Answer: Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrusts)

Q36. Which device is used to protect rescuers from direct contact during mouth-to-mouth ventilation while allowing effective ventilation?

  • Endotracheal tube
  • Face shield or pocket mask with one-way valve
  • Nasal cannula
  • Suction catheter

Correct Answer: Face shield or pocket mask with one-way valve

Q37. Which parameter is most useful to monitor effectiveness of artificial respiration noninvasively?

  • Blood glucose
  • Pulse oximetry (SpO2)
  • Serum creatinine
  • Urine output

Correct Answer: Pulse oximetry (SpO2)

Q38. Which of the following best describes targeted minute ventilation?

  • Number of breaths only
  • Tidal volume multiplied by respiratory rate to achieve desired PaCO2
  • FiO2 multiplied by PEEP
  • Only used in ECMO patients

Correct Answer: Tidal volume multiplied by respiratory rate to achieve desired PaCO2

Q39. Which electrolyte disturbance can worsen respiratory muscle weakness and impair artificial respiration efforts?

  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Hypermagnesemia

Correct Answer: Hypokalemia

Q40. What is the usual immediate next step if an advanced airway is placed during CPR?

  • Stop chest compressions for 2 minutes
  • Provide continuous chest compressions with asynchronous ventilations at recommended rate
  • Disconnect the ventilator
  • Give only breaths without compressions

Correct Answer: Provide continuous chest compressions with asynchronous ventilations at recommended rate

Q41. Which sedative commonly used for rapid sequence intubation has little effect on respiratory drive at low doses but may cause apnea at higher doses?

  • Etomidate
  • Ketamine
  • Propofol
  • Succinylcholine

Correct Answer: Etomidate

Q42. In obstructive lung disease, what ventilatory strategy reduces risk of dynamic hyperinflation?

  • Increase respiratory rate and large tidal volumes
  • Use shorter inspiratory time and lower respiratory rate allowing longer expiratory time
  • Use very high PEEP
  • Eliminate sedation to increase patient effort

Correct Answer: Use shorter inspiratory time and lower respiratory rate allowing longer expiratory time

Q43. Which assessment finding suggests adequate oxygen delivery to tissues during resuscitation?

  • Persistent mottled cyanotic skin regardless of SpO2
  • Improvement in mental status and rising SpO2
  • Rising PaCO2 only
  • Decreasing urine output

Correct Answer: Improvement in mental status and rising SpO2

Q44. For long-term ventilatory support, which route is often used when prolonged artificial respiration is anticipated?

  • Nasal cannula
  • Tracheostomy
  • Simple face mask
  • Oral suction alone

Correct Answer: Tracheostomy

Q45. Which blood gas change would you expect after effective artificial hyperventilation?

  • Increased PaCO2
  • Decreased PaCO2
  • Decreased PaO2 only
  • Metabolic acidosis immediately

Correct Answer: Decreased PaCO2

Q46. Which inhaled bronchodilator is commonly used to treat bronchospasm that may complicate ventilation?

  • Nitroprusside
  • Salbutamol (albuterol)
  • Furosemide
  • Amiodarone

Correct Answer: Salbutamol (albuterol)

Q47. During artificial respiration, which action reduces risk of gastric inflation?

  • Deliver rapid, forceful breaths
  • Use slow, gentle breaths and appropriate tidal volumes
  • Hyperextend the neck
  • Ventilate at very high pressures

Correct Answer: Use slow, gentle breaths and appropriate tidal volumes

Q48. Which monitoring method gives continuous trend information about carbon dioxide elimination during ventilation?

  • Pulse oximetry
  • Capnography (end-tidal CO2)
  • Serum lactate measurement
  • Invasive arterial line without analysis

Correct Answer: Capnography (end-tidal CO2)

Q49. What is the recommended ventilation rate for an intubated adult receiving asynchronous ventilations during CPR?

  • 10 breaths per minute
  • 8 breaths per minute
  • 30 breaths per minute
  • 2 breaths per minute

Correct Answer: 10 breaths per minute

Q50. Which of the following should a B. Pharm student prioritize learning to support safe artificial respiration in clinical practice?

  • Only drug names without clinical implications
  • Integration of airway management basics, ventilator principles, drug effects on respiration, and monitoring
  • Billing and coding for ventilator use
  • Nonclinical administrative tasks

Correct Answer: Integration of airway management basics, ventilator principles, drug effects on respiration, and monitoring

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