MCQ Quiz-Testing

MCQ Quiz: Testing

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“Testing” in pharmacy practice is a broad and critical domain, ranging from interpreting complex lab reports and pharmacogenomic data to counseling on point-of-care devices. For PharmD students, mastering the principles behind these tests—including their statistical validity and clinical application—is essential for making informed patient care decisions. This quiz will evaluate your knowledge of laboratory diagnostics, the statistics of test performance, and the use of genetic and point-of-care testing in modern pharmacy.

1. A diagnostic test’s ability to correctly identify individuals who have a specific disease is known as its:

  • Specificity
  • Sensitivity
  • Positive Predictive Value
  • Negative Predictive Value

Answer: Sensitivity

2. Specificity of a diagnostic test refers to its ability to:

  • Correctly identify individuals who are at high risk for a disease.
  • Provide a result within a short time frame.
  • Correctly identify individuals who do not have a specific disease.
  • Work in all patient populations equally.

Answer: Correctly identify individuals who do not have a specific disease.

3. When initiating therapy with azathioprine, pre-emptive testing for Thiopurine Methyltransferase (TPMT) activity is recommended to prevent the risk of:

  • Severe, potentially fatal myelosuppression.
  • Acute liver failure.
  • A hypertensive crisis.
  • Severe skin reactions.

Answer: Severe, potentially fatal myelosuppression.

4. A patient’s lab report shows an elevated TSH and a low Free T4. These results are most consistent with a diagnosis of:

  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Cushing’s syndrome
  • Addison’s disease

Answer: Hypothyroidism

5. A pharmacist is counseling a patient on using a home blood glucose meter. This activity is an example of counseling on:

  • A laboratory-based test.
  • A pharmacogenomic test.
  • A point-of-care or self-monitoring test.
  • A sterile compounding procedure.

Answer: A point-of-care or self-monitoring test.

6. What is the primary purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB) in the context of clinical testing research?

  • To ensure the research is profitable.
  • To analyze the statistical results of the trial.
  • To protect the rights and welfare of human research subjects.
  • To market the new diagnostic test.

Answer: To protect the rights and welfare of human research subjects.

7. A “culture and sensitivity” report is used by clinicians to:

  • Test for patient allergies to antibiotics.
  • Identify the causative bacteria in an infection and determine which antibiotics will be effective against it.
  • Measure the level of inflammation in the body.
  • Screen for viral infections.

Answer: Identify the causative bacteria in an infection and determine which antibiotics will be effective against it.

8. The Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a test is the probability that:

  • A person with a negative test result is truly disease-free.
  • A person with the disease will test positive.
  • A person with a positive test result truly has the disease.
  • A person without the disease will test negative.

Answer: A person with a positive test result truly has the disease.

9. Routine testing for the HLA-B*57:01 allele is recommended before starting which medication to prevent a severe hypersensitivity reaction?

  • Allopurinol
  • Carbamazepine
  • Abacavir
  • Phenytoin

Answer: Abacavir

10. An Objective Structured Clinical Exam (OSCE) is a form of testing used in pharmacy schools to:

  • Evaluate a student’s knowledge of medicinal chemistry.
  • Assess a student’s performance-based skills in simulated patient encounters.
  • Test a student’s ability to perform pharmaceutical calculations.
  • Determine a student’s final course grade through a multiple-choice exam.

Answer: Assess a student’s performance-based skills in simulated patient encounters.

11. Testing for DPYD gene variants is important for patients receiving fluoropyrimidine chemotherapy (e.g., 5-FU) to assess the risk of:

  • Severe, life-threatening toxicity.
  • Therapeutic failure.
  • A drug-drug interaction.
  • A mild skin rash.

Answer: Severe, life-threatening toxicity.

12. When screening a patient for eligibility to receive an immunization, it is critical to ask about:

  • Their favorite color.
  • Their dietary preferences.
  • Severe allergies and current health status (e.g., fever).
  • Their travel history in the last 10 years.

Answer: Severe allergies and current health status (e.g., fever).

13. A “wet mount” is a type of microscopic test often used in the diagnosis of:

  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes
  • Vaginitis
  • High cholesterol

Answer: Vaginitis

14. Hypothesis testing in biostatistics begins with the assumption that the ________ is true.

  • Alternative hypothesis
  • Research hypothesis
  • Null hypothesis
  • Clinical hypothesis

Answer: Null hypothesis

15. Pharmacogenomic testing for CYP2C19 is most relevant for determining the efficacy of which medication?

  • Warfarin
  • Simvastatin
  • Codeine
  • Clopidogrel

Answer: Clopidogrel

16. The international normalized ratio (INR) is a laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of:

  • Heparin
  • Warfarin
  • Clopidogrel
  • Aspirin

Answer: Warfarin

17. A p-value of < 0.05 from a statistical test generally indicates that:

  • The result is not statistically significant.
  • There is a 5% chance the result is correct.
  • The null hypothesis can be rejected.
  • The study has no biases.

Answer: The null hypothesis can be rejected.

18. What is a primary limitation of direct-to-consumer (DTC) genetic testing for making clinical decisions?

  • The tests are always covered by insurance.
  • The results may not be from a clinically validated lab and can be misinterpreted without professional guidance.
  • They provide more information than a clinician can handle.
  • The results are always inconclusive.

Answer: The results may not be from a clinically validated lab and can be misinterpreted without professional guidance.

19. What does the “A” in the APhA Immunization Certification course stand for?

  • American
  • Advanced
  • Aseptic
  • Applied

Answer: American

20. A “trough” level is a blood sample drawn:

  • Immediately after a drug dose is given.
  • At a random time during the day.
  • Just before the next drug dose is scheduled to be administered.
  • Two hours after a drug dose is given.

Answer: Just before the next drug dose is scheduled to be administered.

21. A comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) provides information about a patient’s:

  • Complete blood count.
  • Clotting status.
  • Electrolyte levels, and kidney and liver function.
  • Genetic makeup.

Answer: Electrolyte levels, and kidney and liver function.

22. An elevated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) test result is an indicator of:

  • An active infection.
  • Poorly controlled blood glucose over the past 2-3 months.
  • High cholesterol.
  • Impaired liver function.

Answer: Poorly controlled blood glucose over the past 2-3 months.

23. Interpreting a purified protein derivative (PPD) test is a screening method for:

  • Influenza
  • HIV
  • Tuberculosis
  • Hepatitis C

Answer: Tuberculosis

24. The results of pharmacogenomic testing can help a pharmacist individualize therapy by:

  • Predicting the weather.
  • Guiding drug selection and dosing.
  • Determining a patient’s insurance coverage.
  • Calculating a patient’s BMI.

Answer: Guiding drug selection and dosing.

25. A DEXA scan is the gold standard diagnostic test for:

  • Heart failure
  • Osteoporosis
  • Community-acquired pneumonia
  • Anemia

Answer: Osteoporosis

26. When a rapid influenza diagnostic test (RIDT) is negative, but the patient has classic flu symptoms during peak flu season, what is a possible interpretation?

  • The patient definitely does not have the flu.
  • The test may be a false negative due to its limited sensitivity.
  • The test is broken.
  • The patient is immune to the flu.

Answer: The test may be a false negative due to its limited sensitivity.

27. The term “therapeutic drug monitoring” refers to:

  • Watching a patient take their medication.
  • Measuring drug concentrations in the blood to optimize dosing.
  • Testing a drug’s stability in different temperatures.
  • Monitoring a patient for adherence using a smartphone app.

Answer: Measuring drug concentrations in the blood to optimize dosing.

28. A patient’s serum creatinine is a key value used to estimate their:

  • Liver function
  • Cardiac output
  • Lung capacity
  • Renal function

Answer: Renal function

29. What is the pharmacist’s role regarding over-the-counter testing devices, such as pregnancy tests or cholesterol panels?

  • To advise patients that these tests are unreliable.
  • To interpret the results as a definitive diagnosis.
  • To refuse to sell these products.
  • To counsel patients on proper use and the interpretation of results, including when to see a physician.

Answer: To counsel patients on proper use and the interpretation of results, including when to see a physician.

30. The “Top 200 Drug Exam” in the pharmacy curriculum is designed to test a student’s knowledge of:

  • The 200 most expensive drugs.
  • The 200 most commonly prescribed medications.
  • The 200 newest drugs on the market.
  • The 200 most toxic drugs.

Answer: The 200 most commonly prescribed medications.

31. An elevated level of cardiac troponins in the blood is a highly specific marker for:

  • A stroke
  • A pulmonary embolism
  • Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
  • A bacterial infection

Answer: Myocardial infarction (heart attack)

32. The primary goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST) is to:

  • Determine the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth (MIC).
  • Identify the species of the bacteria.
  • Test how fast the bacteria grows.
  • Determine if the patient is allergic to the antibiotic.

Answer: Determine the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth (MIC).

33. What does it mean if a bacteria is reported as “Resistant” to an antibiotic on a sensitivity report?

  • The antibiotic is the best choice for treatment.
  • The antibiotic will be effective if given at a higher dose.
  • The antibiotic is not likely to be effective against that bacteria.
  • The patient will have an allergic reaction to the antibiotic.

Answer: The antibiotic is not likely to be effective against that bacteria.

34. A Situational Judgement Test (SJT) is designed to assess:

  • A person’s knowledge of clinical facts.
  • A person’s reasoning and behavioral tendencies in work-related scenarios.
  • A person’s ability to perform mathematical calculations.
  • A person’s physical strength.

Answer: A person’s reasoning and behavioral tendencies in work-related scenarios.

35. Before performing any point-of-care test, a pharmacist must first:

  • Obtain patient consent.
  • Ensure proper training and competency.
  • Follow all quality control and safety procedures.
  • All of the above.

Answer: All of the above.

36. A urine drug screen is a type of test used to:

  • Diagnose kidney disease.
  • Detect the presence of specific prescription or illicit drugs.
  • Measure a patient’s hydration status.
  • Identify bacteria in the urine.

Answer: Detect the presence of specific prescription or illicit drugs.

37. A “false positive” test result means that:

  • The test correctly identifies a person with the disease.
  • The test indicates a person has a disease when they actually do not.
  • The test fails to detect a disease that is present.
  • The test result was lost by the laboratory.

Answer: The test indicates a person has a disease when they actually do not.

38. The main purpose of a “pre-lab quiz” in a skills lab course is to:

  • Ensure students are prepared for the day’s activities.
  • Serve as the final exam for the course.
  • Punish students who are late.
  • Test material from a different course.

Answer: Ensure students are prepared for the day’s activities.

39. Testing for CYP2D6 metabolizer status is important before prescribing certain antidepressants because:

  • It can predict who will respond to therapy.
  • It can help avoid adverse effects due to altered drug concentrations.
  • It can help guide initial dose selection.
  • All of the above.

Answer: All of the above.

40. A spirometry test is used to assess:

  • Heart function
  • Kidney function
  • Liver function
  • Lung function

Answer: Lung function

41. The principle of “waived” tests under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) means:

  • The tests are so simple and accurate that they have a low risk of an incorrect result.
  • The test fee is waived for all patients.
  • The tests can only be performed in a hospital laboratory.
  • The tests are considered experimental.

Answer: The tests are so simple and accurate that they have a low risk of an incorrect result.

42. Which of the following is an example of a common point-of-care test performed in a community pharmacy?

  • MRI scan
  • Blood glucose check
  • Complete surgical biopsy
  • Chest x-ray

Answer: Blood glucose check

43. A key pharmacist skill in the era of genomic medicine is the ability to:

  • Perform gene sequencing.
  • Interpret and apply the results of pharmacogenomic tests to patient care.
  • Develop new genetic tests.
  • Patent newly discovered genes.

Answer: Interpret and apply the results of pharmacogenomic tests to patient care.

44. What is the role of quality control (QC) in laboratory testing?

  • To ensure the test systems are working properly and providing accurate results.
  • To increase the number of tests performed each day.
  • To select which patients get tested.
  • To bill for the tests performed.

Answer: To ensure the test systems are working properly and providing accurate results.

45. An “antibiogram” is a tool that helps clinicians:

  • See a picture of the bacteria.
  • Choose the best empiric antibiotic therapy based on local resistance patterns.
  • Diagnose a viral infection.
  • Calculate an antibiotic dose.

Answer: Choose the best empiric antibiotic therapy based on local resistance patterns.

46. A “Readiness Assurance Test” (RAT) used in a team-based learning session is designed to:

  • Determine the final course grade.
  • Hold individuals and teams accountable for preparing for class.
  • Test physical readiness for lab activities.
  • Act as a pre-matriculation entrance exam.

Answer: Hold individuals and teams accountable for preparing for class.

47. A lipid panel is a blood test that measures:

  • Red and white blood cells.
  • Liver enzymes.
  • Electrolytes and glucose.
  • Total cholesterol, HDL, LDL, and triglycerides.

Answer: Total cholesterol, HDL, LDL, and triglycerides.

48. Why is it important to know the “normal range” for a lab test?

  • To interpret whether a patient’s result is low, normal, or high.
  • The normal range is the same for all patients worldwide.
  • It is not important.
  • To determine the cost of the test.

Answer: To interpret whether a patient’s result is low, normal, or high.

49. An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count is often an indicator of:

  • Anemia
  • Infection or inflammation
  • Dehydration
  • Poorly controlled diabetes

Answer: Infection or inflammation

50. The ultimate goal of all clinical and diagnostic testing in pharmacy practice is to:

  • Generate revenue for the laboratory.
  • Gather data to support informed, patient-centered decisions.
  • Fulfill documentation requirements.
  • Utilize the latest technology.

Answer: Gather data to support informed, patient-centered decisions.

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