Regulatory terminologies in pharmacovigilance MCQs With Answer

Introduction: Understanding regulatory terminologies in pharmacovigilance is essential for B. Pharm students preparing for careers in drug safety and regulatory affairs. This concise overview introduces key terms—pharmacovigilance (PV), adverse drug reaction (ADR), adverse event (AE), serious adverse event (SAE), suspected unexpected serious adverse reaction (SUSAR), signal detection, Risk Management Plan (RMP), Pharmacovigilance System Master File (PSMF), Periodic Benefit-Risk Evaluation Report (PBRER), and regulatory bodies (FDA, EMA, CDSCO, ICH). Familiarity with reporting timelines, Individual Case Safety Reports (ICSRs), aggregate reports (PSUR/PADER), MedDRA coding, VigiBase and safety inspections helps students apply PV regulations and compliance in real-world settings. ‘Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.’

Q1. What is the best definition of pharmacovigilance?

  • The detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other medicine-related problem
  • The marketing and distribution of pharmaceutical products
  • The clinical development of new drugs
  • The financial auditing of pharmaceutical companies

Correct Answer: The detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other medicine-related problem

Q2. Which statement correctly defines an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?

  • An unintended and noxious response to a medicinal product that is suspected to be related to the drug
  • Any planned therapeutic effect of a drug
  • A reaction caused by improper drug storage only
  • An expected pharmacological effect of a drug

Correct Answer: An unintended and noxious response to a medicinal product that is suspected to be related to the drug

Q3. How does an adverse event (AE) differ from an ADR?

  • An AE is any untoward medical occurrence during treatment, while an ADR implies a causal relationship with the drug
  • An AE always implies drug causality, ADR does not
  • AE is used only in post-marketing, ADR only in clinical trials
  • They are synonymous and interchangeable

Correct Answer: An AE is any untoward medical occurrence during treatment, while an ADR implies a causal relationship with the drug

Q4. Which description best fits a Serious Adverse Event (SAE)?

  • An event that results in death, is life-threatening, requires hospitalization, results in persistent disability or a congenital anomaly
  • A non-serious, transient side effect that requires no intervention
  • An event that is always expected with a drug and needs no reporting
  • A medication error without patient harm

Correct Answer: An event that results in death, is life-threatening, requires hospitalization, results in persistent disability or a congenital anomaly

Q5. What does SUSAR stand for?

  • Suspected Unexpected Serious Adverse Reaction
  • Standardized Unexpected Safety Adverse Report
  • Safety Update Summary for Adverse Reactions
  • Serious Unconfirmed Safety Alert Report

Correct Answer: Suspected Unexpected Serious Adverse Reaction

Q6. Which of the following lists the minimum essential data elements for an Individual Case Safety Report (ICSR)?

  • Patient identifier, suspected drug, adverse event description, reporter details, date of onset
  • Only the drug name and batch number
  • Marketing data and sales figures
  • Investigator salary details and trial budget

Correct Answer: Patient identifier, suspected drug, adverse event description, reporter details, date of onset

Q7. What are the regulatory timelines for SUSAR reporting in clinical trials in the EU?

  • Fatal or life‑threatening SUSARs within 7 days (follow‑up within 8 days); other SUSARs within 15 days
  • All SUSARs within 90 days
  • Only annual summary reporting is required for SUSARs
  • Immediate telephone call only, no written report required

Correct Answer: Fatal or life‑threatening SUSARs within 7 days (follow‑up within 8 days); other SUSARs within 15 days

Q8. Who is principally responsible for maintaining pharmacovigilance for an approved medicinal product?

  • Marketing Authorization Holder (MAH)
  • Hospital pharmacist only
  • Individual prescribers without company involvement
  • Local distributor with no oversight from MAH

Correct Answer: Marketing Authorization Holder (MAH)

Q9. What is the primary purpose of a Pharmacovigilance System Master File (PSMF)?

  • To document the pharmacovigilance system, processes, procedures and responsibilities of the MAH
  • To list sales and marketing strategies for a product
  • To provide manufacturing process details only
  • To serve as a contract for clinical trial participants

Correct Answer: To document the pharmacovigilance system, processes, procedures and responsibilities of the MAH

Q10. How does a PBRER differ from a PSUR?

  • PBRER (Periodic Benefit‑Risk Evaluation Report) integrates benefit‑risk evaluation and replaced PSUR under ICH E2C(R2)
  • PSUR is only for veterinary products and PBRER for humans
  • PBRER contains only manufacturing data, PSUR only clinical data
  • There is no difference; they are identical documents

Correct Answer: PBRER (Periodic Benefit‑Risk Evaluation Report) integrates benefit‑risk evaluation and replaced PSUR under ICH E2C(R2)

Q11. What is MedDRA?

  • A standardized medical terminology for coding adverse events used in regulatory activities
  • A clinical trial design software
  • A marketing database for drug promotion
  • A type of laboratory equipment

Correct Answer: A standardized medical terminology for coding adverse events used in regulatory activities

Q12. What is the primary goal of signal detection in pharmacovigilance?

  • To identify new or changing safety issues from data sources so they can be assessed and managed
  • To promote sales of newer medicines
  • To delay reporting of known adverse reactions
  • To replace clinical trials entirely

Correct Answer: To identify new or changing safety issues from data sources so they can be assessed and managed

Q13. What is EudraVigilance?

  • The European database for managing and analyzing suspected adverse reaction reports related to medicinal products
  • A global manufacturing quality standard
  • A patient recruitment system for trials
  • An Indian adverse event reporting portal

Correct Answer: The European database for managing and analyzing suspected adverse reaction reports related to medicinal products

Q14. Which ICH guideline addresses clinical safety data management and expedited reporting?

  • ICH E2A
  • ICH Q7
  • ICH M4
  • ICH S6

Correct Answer: ICH E2A

Q15. Which ICH guideline is associated with PBRER and periodic benefit-risk evaluation?

  • ICH E2C(R2)
  • ICH E3
  • ICH Q1A
  • ICH S3A

Correct Answer: ICH E2C(R2)

Q16. In MedDRA hierarchy, which level is typically used as the standard term for analysis of adverse events?

  • Preferred Term (PT)
  • System Organ Class (SOC)
  • Lowest Level Term (LLT)
  • High Level Term (HLT)

Correct Answer: Preferred Term (PT)

Q17. What is the role of CIOMS in pharmacovigilance?

  • To provide international guidance and working group reports on drug safety, case reporting and causality assessment
  • To regulate national marketing authorizations
  • To manufacture generic drugs
  • To set drug prices worldwide

Correct Answer: To provide international guidance and working group reports on drug safety, case reporting and causality assessment

Q18. What does PSUR stand for?

  • Periodic Safety Update Report
  • Product Sales and Usage Report
  • Pharmacovigilance System User Report
  • Periodic Sales Unit Record

Correct Answer: Periodic Safety Update Report

Q19. What key elements are included in a Risk Management Plan (RMP)?

  • Identified and potential risks, pharmacovigilance activities, and risk minimization measures
  • Only the manufacturing SOPs
  • Marketing strategies and pricing
  • Investigator salaries and trial logistics

Correct Answer: Identified and potential risks, pharmacovigilance activities, and risk minimization measures

Q20. A pharmacovigilance agreement (PVA) between two companies should primarily define what?

  • Roles and responsibilities for pharmacovigilance activities, reporting obligations and data exchange mechanisms
  • Sales territory boundaries and commissions
  • Clinical trial recruitment targets only
  • Manufacturing equipment sharing

Correct Answer: Roles and responsibilities for pharmacovigilance activities, reporting obligations and data exchange mechanisms

Q21. Which organization manages the global adverse reaction database VigiBase?

  • Uppsala Monitoring Centre (UMC)
  • World Health Organization Regional Office for Europe
  • European Medicines Agency only
  • Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Correct Answer: Uppsala Monitoring Centre (UMC)

Q22. MedDRA coding is primarily used for coding which information in ICSRs?

  • Adverse event terms and medical concepts
  • Manufacturing batch numbers
  • Marketing expenditure categories
  • Investigator contact details only

Correct Answer: Adverse event terms and medical concepts

Q23. Which causality category suggests a reasonable causal relationship between drug and event?

  • Probable / Likely
  • Unrelated
  • Impossible
  • Unknown medication name

Correct Answer: Probable / Likely

Q24. Which set of guidelines defines good pharmacovigilance practices and requirements in the European Union?

  • Good Pharmacovigilance Practices (GVP)
  • Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP)
  • Good Clinical Practice (GCP)
  • ISO 9001 only

Correct Answer: Good Pharmacovigilance Practices (GVP)

Q25. What does PADER stand for?

  • Periodic Adverse Drug Experience Report
  • Product Adverse Data Evaluation Record
  • Pharmacovigilance Annual Data Exchange Report
  • Periodic Advertising and Drug Efficacy Report

Correct Answer: Periodic Adverse Drug Experience Report

Q26. Who typically conducts inspections of a company’s pharmacovigilance system?

  • Regulatory authorities (e.g., FDA, EMA, CDSCO)
  • Competitor companies only
  • Marketing agencies without regulatory power
  • Local pharmacies

Correct Answer: Regulatory authorities (e.g., FDA, EMA, CDSCO)

Q27. What is the purpose of signal validation in the signal management process?

  • To confirm that a reported signal is a true safety concern worthy of assessment and not an artifact or duplicate
  • To immediately withdraw the product without assessment
  • To market the product more aggressively
  • To anonymize all patient data permanently

Correct Answer: To confirm that a reported signal is a true safety concern worthy of assessment and not an artifact or duplicate

Q28. Which dictionary is commonly used for coding medicinal products in ICSRs?

  • WHO Drug Dictionary
  • MedDRA for drug names
  • Chemical Abstracts Service only
  • International Pricing Index

Correct Answer: WHO Drug Dictionary

Q29. Which programme is responsible for national pharmacovigilance coordination in India?

  • Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI)
  • European Medicines Agency (EMA)
  • Uppsala Monitoring Centre (UMC) exclusively
  • World Bank Health Programme

Correct Answer: Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI)

Q30. Who is responsible for submitting ICSRs to EudraVigilance for a marketed product in the EU?

  • Marketing Authorization Holder (MAH)
  • Individual prescribing physicians only
  • Local wholesalers without oversight
  • Medical journals

Correct Answer: Marketing Authorization Holder (MAH)

Author

  • G S Sachin
    : Author

    G S Sachin is a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. He holds a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research and creates clear, accurate educational content on pharmacology, drug mechanisms of action, pharmacist learning, and GPAT exam preparation.

    Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com

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