Viruses MCQs With Answer

Viruses MCQs With Answer is a focused resource for B. Pharm students preparing for exams in virology, pharmacology and clinical microbiology. This concise, keyword-rich introduction covers viral structure, replication cycles, classification (Baltimore system), pathogenesis, diagnostic methods, antiviral mechanisms and vaccine principles, emphasizing pharmacological relevance. Designed to enhance retention, the MCQs highlight drug targets, resistance, and clinically important viruses like influenza, HIV, hepatitis and herpesviruses. Each question reinforces core concepts needed for therapeutics and lab interpretation. Clear explanations and repeated practice improve recall and exam performance. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which structure is composed of repeating protein subunits called capsomeres?

  • Envelope
  • Nucleocapsid
  • Capsid
  • Genome

Correct Answer: Capsid

Q2. Which classification system groups viruses by genome type and replication strategy?

  • Taxonomic nomenclature
  • Baltimore classification
  • Phylogenetic grouping
  • Serotyping

Correct Answer: Baltimore classification

Q3. Single-stranded positive-sense RNA viruses can be directly translated by host ribosomes because their genome acts as:

  • Template for DNA synthesis
  • mRNA
  • Antigen
  • Reverse transcriptase

Correct Answer: mRNA

Q4. Which enzyme is essential for retroviruses to synthesize DNA from RNA?

  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • DNA polymerase III
  • Integrase

Correct Answer: Reverse transcriptase

Q5. Which viral component determines host cell specificity and entry?

  • Capsomere composition
  • Viral envelope glycoproteins
  • Genome length
  • Viral proteases

Correct Answer: Viral envelope glycoproteins

Q6. Antigenic drift in influenza viruses is primarily due to:

  • Reassortment of genome segments
  • Point mutations in surface proteins
  • Acquisition of host genes
  • Loss of envelope

Correct Answer: Point mutations in surface proteins

Q7. Antigenic shift differs from drift because shift involves:

  • Slow accumulation of point mutations
  • Reassortment of segmented genomes
  • Increased fidelity of polymerase
  • Host immune suppression

Correct Answer: Reassortment of segmented genomes

Q8. Which diagnostic test amplifies viral nucleic acid for detection?

  • ELISA
  • PCR
  • Electron microscopy
  • Hemagglutination

Correct Answer: PCR

Q9. Which antiviral drug class inhibits viral neuraminidase in influenza?

  • Nucleoside analogs
  • Neuraminidase inhibitors
  • Protease inhibitors
  • Fusion inhibitors

Correct Answer: Neuraminidase inhibitors

Q10. Acyclovir is effective against herpesviruses because it is activated by:

  • Host cell thymidine kinase
  • Viral thymidine kinase
  • Viral protease
  • RNA polymerase

Correct Answer: Viral thymidine kinase

Q11. Which virus is a common cause of viral hepatitis and can integrate into host DNA?

  • Hepatitis A virus
  • Hepatitis B virus
  • Hepatitis E virus
  • Rota virus

Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus

Q12. Which viral genome type is packaged by parvoviruses?

  • Double-stranded DNA
  • Single-stranded DNA
  • Single-stranded RNA positive sense
  • Double-stranded RNA

Correct Answer: Single-stranded DNA

Q13. Viral uncoating refers to:

  • Attachment to the host cell
  • Release of the viral genome into the host
  • Assembly of new virions
  • Exit of virions by lysis

Correct Answer: Release of the viral genome into the host

Q14. Which property makes enveloped viruses more sensitive to detergents?

  • Rigid capsid
  • Lipid bilayer envelope
  • Double-stranded genome
  • DNA-dependent polymerase

Correct Answer: Lipid bilayer envelope

Q15. Which enzyme do RNA viruses typically use to replicate their genome?

  • DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • Reverse transcriptase
  • DNA ligase

Correct Answer: RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Q16. Live attenuated vaccines are characterized by:

  • Inactivated viral particles
  • Weakened but replication-competent virus
  • Only viral proteins
  • Viral DNA fragments

Correct Answer: Weakened but replication-competent virus

Q17. Which viral family includes poliovirus and rhinovirus?

  • Herpesviridae
  • Picornaviridae
  • Orthomyxoviridae
  • Retroviridae

Correct Answer: Picornaviridae

Q18. Which process describes viral assembly of new particles inside a host cell?

  • Penetration
  • Replication
  • Assembly
  • Translation

Correct Answer: Assembly

Q19. Which virus family contains segmented negative-sense RNA genomes like influenza?

  • Paramyxoviridae
  • Picornaviridae
  • Orthomyxoviridae
  • Flaviviridae

Correct Answer: Orthomyxoviridae

Q20. Which antiviral drug class inhibits HIV protease to prevent maturation?

  • Protease inhibitors
  • Integrase inhibitors
  • Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  • Fusion inhibitors

Correct Answer: Protease inhibitors

Q21. A viral tropism is best defined as:

  • Rate of mutation
  • Range of host cells a virus can infect
  • Length of viral genome
  • Type of capsid symmetry

Correct Answer: Range of host cells a virus can infect

Q22. Which diagnostic assay detects viral antigens using antibodies?

  • PCR
  • ELISA
  • Northern blot
  • Cell culture plaque assay

Correct Answer: ELISA

Q23. Which virus is known for causing latent infections that can reactivate later?

  • Norovirus
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Rhinovirus
  • Adenovirus

Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

Q24. Which viral particle is non-enveloped and highly stable in the environment?

  • Influenza virus
  • Poliovirus
  • HIV
  • Hepatitis B virus

Correct Answer: Poliovirus

Q25. Viral budding from the host cell typically acquires which structure?

  • Capsid only
  • Lipid envelope derived from host membrane
  • Cell wall components
  • Ribosomal subunits

Correct Answer: Lipid envelope derived from host membrane

Q26. Which hepatitis virus is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route?

  • Hepatitis B
  • Hepatitis C
  • Hepatitis A
  • Hepatitis D

Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

Q27. Which viral protein is targeted by neuraminidase inhibitors like oseltamivir?

  • Hemagglutinin
  • Neuraminidase
  • M2 ion channel
  • Reverse transcriptase

Correct Answer: Neuraminidase

Q28. Which virus family includes HIV?

  • Herpesviridae
  • Retroviridae
  • Flaviviridae
  • Coronaviridae

Correct Answer: Retroviridae

Q29. Viral latency means the virus:

  • Is cleared completely
  • Persists in a dormant state within host cells
  • Causes immediate cell lysis
  • Constantly replicates at high levels

Correct Answer: Persists in a dormant state within host cells

Q30. Which technique measures viral infectivity by counting plaques?

  • Plaque assay
  • PCR
  • ELISA
  • Western blot

Correct Answer: Plaque assay

Q31. Which viral enzyme integrates viral DNA into the host genome in retroviruses?

  • Reverse transcriptase
  • Integrase
  • Protease
  • RNA polymerase

Correct Answer: Integrase

Q32. Which characteristic is typical of dsRNA viruses like rotavirus?

  • Genome segmented and double-stranded RNA
  • Integrates into host genome
  • Has an envelope
  • Replicates in nucleus only

Correct Answer: Genome segmented and double-stranded RNA

Q33. Which viral vaccine type contains only selected viral proteins or peptides?

  • Live attenuated vaccine
  • Inactivated whole-virus vaccine
  • Subunit vaccine
  • Replicating viral vector vaccine

Correct Answer: Subunit vaccine

Q34. Viral zoonosis refers to infections:

  • Transmitted only between humans
  • Acquired from animal reservoirs
  • Caused by bacteria
  • Restricted to laboratory settings

Correct Answer: Acquired from animal reservoirs

Q35. Which antiviral inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase as a nucleoside analog?

  • Ritonavir
  • Lamivudine
  • Oseltamivir
  • Acyclovir

Correct Answer: Lamivudine

Q36. Viral hemagglutination assay detects virus by:

  • Ability to lyse red blood cells
  • Ability to agglutinate red blood cells
  • Inhibiting neuraminidase
  • Binding to antibodies only

Correct Answer: Ability to agglutinate red blood cells

Q37. Which virus is RNA-based and causes dengue fever?

  • Flavivirus
  • Orthomyxovirus
  • Paramyxovirus
  • Herpesvirus

Correct Answer: Flavivirus

Q38. Which antiviral drug blocks HIV entry by binding CCR5 co-receptor?

  • Maraviroc
  • Zidovudine
  • Ritonavir
  • Enfuvirtide

Correct Answer: Maraviroc

Q39. Viral recombination refers to:

  • Exchange of genetic material between related viruses
  • Only point mutations
  • Loss of viral envelope
  • Viral protein degradation

Correct Answer: Exchange of genetic material between related viruses

Q40. Which viral structure symmetry is common in many bacteriophages?

  • Helical symmetry
  • Icosahedral symmetry
  • Filamentous symmetry
  • No symmetry

Correct Answer: Icosahedral symmetry

Q41. Which test distinguishes between recent and past infection by measuring IgM vs IgG?

  • Viral culture
  • Serology
  • PCR
  • Electron microscopy

Correct Answer: Serology

Q42. Which viral family includes SARS-CoV-2?

  • Paramyxoviridae
  • Flaviviridae
  • Coronaviridae
  • Picornaviridae

Correct Answer: Coronaviridae

Q43. Which mechanism commonly causes antiviral drug resistance?

  • Host cell mutation
  • Viral genome mutation altering drug target
  • Increased drug absorption
  • Changes in patient diet

Correct Answer: Viral genome mutation altering drug target

Q44. Which viral protein mediates fusion of viral and host membranes in enveloped viruses?

  • Capsid protein
  • Fusion protein
  • Polymerase
  • Protease

Correct Answer: Fusion protein

Q45. Which virus is associated with cervical cancer due to oncogenic strains?

  • Epstein–Barr virus
  • Human papillomavirus
  • Hepatitis A virus
  • Measles virus

Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus

Q46. Which antiviral used for influenza targets the M2 ion channel?

  • Oseltamivir
  • Amantadine
  • Ribavirin
  • Zanamivir

Correct Answer: Amantadine

Q47. Which laboratory safety containment is most appropriate for handling high-risk viral pathogens?

  • Biosafety Level 1
  • Biosafety Level 2
  • Biosafety Level 3 or 4 depending on pathogen
  • No containment needed

Correct Answer: Biosafety Level 3 or 4 depending on pathogen

Q48. Viral syncytium formation is caused by:

  • Host cell apoptosis only
  • Fusion of infected cells mediated by viral proteins
  • Rapid cell division
  • Neutralizing antibodies

Correct Answer: Fusion of infected cells mediated by viral proteins

Q49. Which antiviral is a broad-spectrum guanosine analog used against RSV and some RNA viruses?

  • Ribavirin
  • Acyclovir
  • Zidovudine
  • Oseltamivir

Correct Answer: Ribavirin

Q50. Which viral nucleic acid is directly infectious when introduced into permissive cells without proteins?

  • Double-stranded DNA
  • Single-stranded negative-sense RNA
  • Single-stranded positive-sense RNA
  • Double-stranded RNA

Correct Answer: Single-stranded positive-sense RNA

Leave a Comment