Tripelennamine hydrochloride MCQs With Answer

Tripelennamine hydrochloride MCQs With Answer

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Tripelennamine hydrochloride MCQs With Answer provides B. Pharm students a focused review of tripelennamine — a first‑generation H1 antihistamine of the ethylenediamine class. This concise introduction covers mechanism of action, pharmacological effects, therapeutic uses in allergic disorders, pharmacokinetics, adverse reactions, drug interactions, and formulation considerations relevant to pharmacy practice. Emphasis is placed on receptor pharmacology, central nervous system penetration, anticholinergic properties, and safe dispensing practices. These targeted, exam‑style multiple‑choice questions reinforce critical concepts, clinical implications, and difference from newer generation antihistamines. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which class of antihistamine does tripelennamine hydrochloride belong to?

  • Ethanolamines
    • Piperazines
  • Ethylenediamines
  • Alkylamines

Correct Answer: Ethylenediamines

Q2. What is the primary mechanism of action of tripelennamine?

  • Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
  • Selective H2 receptor activation
  • Competitive antagonism at H1 receptors (inverse agonist activity)
  • Blockade of beta‑adrenergic receptors

Correct Answer: Competitive antagonism at H1 receptors (inverse agonist activity)

Q3. Which clinical indication is tripelennamine most commonly used for?

  • Type 2 diabetes mellitus
  • Allergic rhinitis and urticaria
  • Bacterial sinusitis
  • Hypertension

Correct Answer: Allergic rhinitis and urticaria

Q4. Compared with second‑generation antihistamines, tripelennamine is more likely to cause:

  • Cardiac glycoside toxicity
  • Central nervous system sedation
  • Selective peripheral H1 blockade without sedation
  • Renal accumulation with prolonged action

Correct Answer: Central nervous system sedation

Q5. Which property explains tripelennamine’s sedative effects?

  • High selectivity for H2 receptors in the stomach
  • Inability to cross the blood–brain barrier
  • Good central nervous system penetration crossing the blood–brain barrier
  • Strong activation of peripheral muscarinic receptors

Correct Answer: Good central nervous system penetration crossing the blood–brain barrier

Q6. Which adverse effect is characteristic of first‑generation antihistamines like tripelennamine?

  • Ototoxicity
  • Antimuscarinic effects such as dry mouth and blurred vision
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyperprolactinemia

Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic effects such as dry mouth and blurred vision

Q7. Co‑administration of tripelennamine with which drug class increases risk of excessive sedation?

  • Proton pump inhibitors
  • Central nervous system depressants such as benzodiazepines and alcohol
  • Topical antibiotics
  • Loop diuretics

Correct Answer: Central nervous system depressants such as benzodiazepines and alcohol

Q8. In overdose, tripelennamine toxicity is likely to produce which of the following?

  • Marked bradycardia without other symptoms
  • CNS excitation, seizures, anticholinergic delirium and possible arrhythmias
  • Profound hypoglycemia and coma
  • Acute renal failure due to crystal nephropathy

Correct Answer: CNS excitation, seizures, anticholinergic delirium and possible arrhythmias

Q9. Which pharmacokinetic property is generally true for tripelennamine?

  • It is not absorbed orally and is given only parenterally
  • It undergoes hepatic metabolism and has moderate oral bioavailability
  • It is excreted unchanged exclusively via lungs
  • It has zero first‑pass metabolism and 100% bioavailability

Correct Answer: It undergoes hepatic metabolism and has moderate oral bioavailability

Q10. Which patient population requires caution when prescribing tripelennamine?

  • Young healthy adults
  • Patients with narrow‑angle glaucoma and prostate hypertrophy
  • Patients with seasonal allergies only
  • Patients on vitamin supplements

Correct Answer: Patients with narrow‑angle glaucoma and prostate hypertrophy

Q11. Tripelennamine’s chemical action at the H1 receptor is best described as:

  • Irreversible agonist
  • Receptor internalization promoter
  • Inverse agonist stabilizing the inactive H1 receptor conformation
  • Enzyme inhibitor of histidine decarboxylase

Correct Answer: Inverse agonist stabilizing the inactive H1 receptor conformation

Q12. Which monitoring parameter is most relevant when dispensing tripelennamine?

  • Serum electrolyte levels weekly
  • Assessment for excessive sedation and anticholinergic side effects
  • Frequent blood glucose monitoring
  • Measurement of pulmonary function tests daily

Correct Answer: Assessment for excessive sedation and anticholinergic side effects

Q13. Tripelennamine is less commonly used today because:

  • It lacks any antihistaminic activity
  • Newer second‑generation antihistamines have fewer CNS and anticholinergic effects
  • It is extremely expensive compared with alternatives
  • It requires intravenous infusion only

Correct Answer: Newer second‑generation antihistamines have fewer CNS and anticholinergic effects

Q14. Which formulation is tripelennamine commonly available as?

  • Topical insulin patch
  • Oral tablets or syrup (hydrochloride salt)
  • Inhaled aerosol for COPD
  • Rectal suppository only

Correct Answer: Oral tablets or syrup (hydrochloride salt)

Q15. Tripelennamine’s interaction with anticholinergic drugs may lead to:

  • Reduced anticholinergic effects
  • Additive anticholinergic toxicity such as urinary retention and dry mouth
  • Prevention of tachycardia
  • Enhanced insulin secretion

Correct Answer: Additive anticholinergic toxicity such as urinary retention and dry mouth

Q16. Which statement about tripelennamine and pregnancy is most appropriate?

  • It is the preferred antihistamine in all trimesters
  • Risk–benefit must be assessed; many first‑generation antihistamines are used cautiously if needed
  • It is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity
  • It increases fetal growth and is recommended for underweight pregnancies

Correct Answer: Risk–benefit must be assessed; many first‑generation antihistamines are used cautiously if needed

Q17. Which laboratory enzyme system primarily metabolizes many first‑generation antihistamines, potentially including tripelennamine?

  • Cytochrome P450 hepatic enzymes
  • Pancreatic lipase
  • Cerebral monoamine oxidase B exclusively
  • Renal dehydrogenases only

Correct Answer: Cytochrome P450 hepatic enzymes

Q18. When counseling a patient, which advice is important for tripelennamine use?

  • Do not drive or operate heavy machinery until you know how the drug affects you
  • It is safe to combine with alcohol to enhance effects
  • Take with a high‑fat meal to double the dose effect
  • Stop all other medications without consulting a physician

Correct Answer: Do not drive or operate heavy machinery until you know how the drug affects you

Q19. Compared to diphenhydramine, tripelennamine is distinguished by being:

  • From the ethylenediamine class with generally less pronounced antimuscarinic potency than some ethanolamines
  • More selective for H2 receptors than H1 receptors
  • Completely non‑sedating even at high doses
  • A beta‑blocker with antihistaminic effects

Correct Answer: From the ethylenediamine class with generally less pronounced antimuscarinic potency than some ethanolamines

Q20. Which is a valid pharmaceutical consideration when compounding tripelennamine syrup?

  • It readily oxidizes in light and therefore should be packaged in amber containers if photosensitive
  • It is completely volatile and must be lyophilized before use
  • It cannot be dissolved in aqueous vehicles at all
  • It forms insoluble salts that cannot be formulated as oral liquids

Correct Answer: It readily oxidizes in light and therefore should be packaged in amber containers if photosensitive

Q21. Which receptor effects contribute to tripelennamine’s anti‑pruritic action?

  • Stimulation of histamine release from mast cells
  • Blockade of peripheral H1 receptors reducing itch and vasodilation
  • Activation of peripheral opioid receptors
  • Inhibition of bradykinin synthesis

Correct Answer: Blockade of peripheral H1 receptors reducing itch and vasodilation

Q22. A pharmacist should avoid recommending tripelennamine to a patient who:

  • Has well‑controlled seasonal allergies and tolerates second‑generation agents
  • Works night shifts and must remain fully alert during work
  • Has mild seasonal sneezing only at night
  • Has chronic stable asthma controlled with inhalers

Correct Answer: Works night shifts and must remain fully alert during work

Q23. Which statement about tolerance and chronic use of tripelennamine is correct?

  • Tolerance does not develop and effects are identical indefinitely
  • Some patients may show reduced sedative effects over time due to tolerance
  • Long‑term use guarantees increased antihistamine potency over months
  • It permanently upregulates H1 receptor expression

Correct Answer: Some patients may show reduced sedative effects over time due to tolerance

Q24. Which of the following is a contraindication for tripelennamine use?

  • Narrow‑angle glaucoma without appropriate therapy
  • Mild seasonal allergic rhinitis
  • Occasional non‑productive cough
  • Controlled hypothyroidism

Correct Answer: Narrow‑angle glaucoma without appropriate therapy

Q25. Which monitoring or counseling point addresses pediatric use of tripelennamine?

  • Children are always less sensitive to sedative effects than adults
  • Use with caution; dose adjustments required and increased risk of paradoxical excitation in some children
  • It is the only antihistamine approved for neonates
  • No need to measure dose by weight

Correct Answer: Use with caution; dose adjustments required and increased risk of paradoxical excitation in some children

Q26. Which property helps to classify tripelennamine as a first‑generation antihistamine?

  • Strict peripheral selectivity and lack of CNS penetration
  • Ability to cross the blood–brain barrier and produce sedation
  • Exclusive renal excretion as an unchanged drug
  • Selective blockade of H2 receptors in gastric mucosa

Correct Answer: Ability to cross the blood–brain barrier and produce sedation

Q27. Which drug interaction may potentiate anticholinergic effects of tripelennamine?

  • Cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil
  • Antimuscarinic agents like atropine or tricyclic antidepressants
  • ACE inhibitors like lisinopril
  • Topical antifungals

Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic agents like atropine or tricyclic antidepressants

Q28. In terms of receptor pharmacology, blocking H1 receptors by tripelennamine reduces which pathophysiological events in allergy?

  • Platelet aggregation only
  • Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and sensory nerve stimulation causing itch
  • Insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells
  • Cytokine production from CD8 T cells exclusively

Correct Answer: Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and sensory nerve stimulation causing itch

Q29. Which adverse effect warrants immediate medical attention in a patient on tripelennamine?

  • Mild dry mouth
  • Difficulty breathing or signs of anaphylaxis
  • Transient mild drowsiness after first dose
  • Temporary mild blurred vision that resolves

Correct Answer: Difficulty breathing or signs of anaphylaxis

Q30. For academic understanding, why is knowledge of older drugs like tripelennamine important for B. Pharm students?

  • It is irrelevant since they are obsolete
  • Understanding pharmacological classes, historical context, adverse effect profiles, and drug‑interaction risks enhances rational therapy and patient counseling
  • Only trade names matter in pharmacy practice
  • Because older drugs require no monitoring or counseling

Correct Answer: Understanding pharmacological classes, historical context, adverse effect profiles, and drug‑interaction risks enhances rational therapy and patient counseling

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