Structure of brain MCQs With Answer provide B.Pharm students a focused way to master brain anatomy and clinical correlations essential for pharmacology and therapeutics. This Student-friendly guide covers brain structure, neuroanatomy, functional regions like cerebrum, cerebellum and brainstem, cranial nerves, ventricles, meninges, blood supply including the Circle of Willis, and the blood–brain barrier—key concepts for drug delivery and CNS pharmacokinetics. Each MCQ links structure to function and clinical relevance to improve retention for exams and practical prescribing. Clear answers and concise options help you revise faster and understand drug-target relationships in the CNS. ‘Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.’
Q1. Which division of the brain primarily forms the cerebral hemispheres?
- Forebrain (prosencephalon)
- Midbrain (mesencephalon)
- Hindbrain (rhombencephalon)
- Spinal cord
Correct Answer: Forebrain (prosencephalon)
Q2. Which lobe of the cerebrum contains the primary motor cortex?
- Frontal lobe
- Parietal lobe
- Temporal lobe
- Occipital lobe
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Q3. Broca’s area, important for speech production, is located in which region?
- Inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere
- Superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere
- Primary motor cortex of the non-dominant hemisphere
- Occipital pole
Correct Answer: Inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere
Q4. Wernicke’s area, critical for language comprehension, is primarily found in which lobe?
- Temporal lobe
- Frontal lobe
- Parietal lobe
- Insular cortex
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe
Q5. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the basal ganglia?
- Thalamus
- Caudate nucleus
- Putamen
- Globus pallidus
Correct Answer: Thalamus
Q6. Which limbic structure is most directly involved in memory consolidation?
- Hippocampus
- Amygdala
- Cingulate gyrus
- Nucleus accumbens
Correct Answer: Hippocampus
Q7. The primary function of the cerebellum is:
- Coordination of voluntary movements and balance
- Processing visual information
- Regulating endocrine secretions
- Encoding long-term memories
Correct Answer: Coordination of voluntary movements and balance
Q8. The brainstem consists of which three main parts?
- Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
- Thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus
- Cerebellum, pons, spinal cord
- Cortex, basal ganglia, brainstem
Correct Answer: Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
Q9. Which cranial nerve mediates the sense of smell?
- Olfactory nerve (CN I)
- Optic nerve (CN II)
- Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
- Facial nerve (CN VII)
Correct Answer: Olfactory nerve (CN I)
Q10. Which cranial nerve carries visual information from the retina?
- Optic nerve (CN II)
- Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
- Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
- Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Correct Answer: Optic nerve (CN II)
Q11. The Circle of Willis primarily provides:
- Collateral cerebral blood flow between major arteries
- Venous drainage of the cerebral cortex
- Cerebrospinal fluid production
- Central autonomic regulation
Correct Answer: Collateral cerebral blood flow between major arteries
Q12. The blood–brain barrier is chiefly formed by which structural feature of cerebral vessels?
- Tight junctions between endothelial cells
- Fenestrated endothelium
- Loose endothelial junctions
- Endothelial basement membrane gaps
Correct Answer: Tight junctions between endothelial cells
Q13. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is primarily produced by which structure?
- Choroid plexus in the ventricles
- Pituitary gland
- Subarachnoid granulations
- Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: Choroid plexus in the ventricles
Q14. The cerebral aqueduct connects which ventricles?
- Third ventricle to fourth ventricle
- Lateral ventricle to third ventricle
- Fourth ventricle to central canal
- Two lateral ventricles
Correct Answer: Third ventricle to fourth ventricle
Q15. Which meningeal layer lies directly on the surface of the brain?
- Pia mater
- Arachnoid mater
- Dura mater
- Subdural mater
Correct Answer: Pia mater
Q16. Parkinson’s disease is primarily associated with degeneration of neurons that release which neurotransmitter?
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- Acetylcholine
- GABA
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Q17. The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system is:
- Glutamate
- GABA
- Dopamine
- Glycine
Correct Answer: Glutamate
Q18. The principal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the adult mammalian brain is:
- GABA
- Glutamate
- Acetylcholine
- Norepinephrine
Correct Answer: GABA
Q19. Which brain region integrates autonomic control and regulates the pituitary gland?
- Hypothalamus
- Thalamus
- Hippocampus
- Pons
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Q20. The pituitary gland sits within which bony structure?
- Sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
- Foramen magnum
- Mastoid process
- Ethmoidal labyrinth
Correct Answer: Sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
Q21. The primary visual cortex (V1) is located along which sulcus?
- Calcarine sulcus in the occipital lobe
- Central sulcus in the frontal lobe
- Lateral sulcus in the temporal lobe
- Parieto-occipital sulcus
Correct Answer: Calcarine sulcus in the occipital lobe
Q22. The primary auditory cortex is located in which lobe?
- Temporal lobe
- Frontal lobe
- Parietal lobe
- Occipital lobe
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe
Q23. Damage to Wernicke’s area typically results in:
- Fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension
- Nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension
- Pure motor weakness of the tongue
- Visual field defects only
Correct Answer: Fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension
Q24. Which hemisphere is most commonly dominant for language in right-handed individuals?
- Left hemisphere
- Right hemisphere
- Both hemispheres equally
- Dominance alternates daily
Correct Answer: Left hemisphere
Q25. White matter in the brain is primarily composed of:
- Myelinated axons
- Neuronal cell bodies
- Astrocyte nuclei
- Synaptic vesicles
Correct Answer: Myelinated axons
Q26. Grey matter mainly contains which of the following?
- Neuronal cell bodies and dendrites
- Myelinated long tracts only
- Compact connective tissue
- Cerebrospinal fluid
Correct Answer: Neuronal cell bodies and dendrites
Q27. The middle cerebral artery (MCA) mainly supplies blood to which area?
- Lateral aspects of the cerebral hemispheres including motor and sensory cortex
- Medial frontal lobes and anterior parietal lobes
- Inferior temporal pole only
- Cerebellar hemispheres
Correct Answer: Lateral aspects of the cerebral hemispheres including motor and sensory cortex
Q28. Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery typically causes which deficit?
- Contralateral hemiparesis and hemisensory loss (face and arm predominant)
- Bilateral lower limb weakness only
- Isolated memory loss without motor deficit
- Cerebellar ataxia without sensory loss
Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiparesis and hemisensory loss (face and arm predominant)
Q29. Which endocrine-related brain structure secretes melatonin?
- Pineal gland
- Pituitary anterior lobe
- Hypothalamic suprachiasmatic nucleus
- Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: Pineal gland
Q30. The major commissural fiber connecting the two cerebral hemispheres is the:
- Corpus callosum
- Internal capsule
- Anterior limb of fornix
- Optic chiasm
Correct Answer: Corpus callosum
Q31. The respiratory rhythm-generating centers are located primarily in the:
- Medulla oblongata
- Cerebellum
- Basal ganglia
- Thalamus
Correct Answer: Medulla oblongata
Q32. Degeneration of which midbrain structure is a hallmark of Parkinson’s disease?
- Substantia nigra pars compacta
- Red nucleus
- Periaqueductal gray
- Inferior colliculus
Correct Answer: Substantia nigra pars compacta
Q33. Which ascending tract carries pain and temperature from the body to the brain?
- Spinothalamic tract
- Dorsal column–medial lemniscus
- Corticospinal tract
- Spinocerebellar tract
Correct Answer: Spinothalamic tract
Q34. Which descending tract is the principal pathway for voluntary motor control?
- Corticospinal tract
- Rubrospinal tract
- Vestibulospinal tract
- Spinothalamic tract
Correct Answer: Corticospinal tract
Q35. The mesolimbic pathway, often implicated in addiction and reward, primarily uses which neurotransmitter?
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- GABA
- Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Q36. The blood–CSF barrier differs from the blood–brain barrier and is located at the:
- Choroid plexus epithelial cells
- Endothelial cells of cortical capillaries
- Arachnoid trabeculae
- Pia mater surface vessels
Correct Answer: Choroid plexus epithelial cells
Q37. Proprioception and rapid coordination of movements are primarily functions of the:
- Cerebellum
- Basal ganglia
- Occipital cortex
- Medulla oblongata
Correct Answer: Cerebellum
Q38. Brodmann area 4 corresponds to which cortical function?
- Primary motor cortex
- Primary somatosensory cortex
- Primary visual cortex
- Primary auditory cortex
Correct Answer: Primary motor cortex
Q39. Brodmann area 17 corresponds to which cortical region?
- Primary visual cortex
- Primary motor cortex
- Prefrontal cortex
- Supplementary motor area
Correct Answer: Primary visual cortex
Q40. Reactive gliosis after CNS injury is primarily due to proliferation of which cell type?
- Astrocytes
- Oligodendrocytes
- Microglia only
- Ependymal cells
Correct Answer: Astrocytes
Q41. Myelin in the central nervous system is produced by:
- Oligodendrocytes
- Schwann cells
- Microglia
- Astrocytes
Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes
Q42. Myelin in the peripheral nervous system is produced by:
- Schwann cells
- Oligodendrocytes
- Satellite glial cells
- Ependymal cells
Correct Answer: Schwann cells
Q43. ADH (vasopressin) is synthesized in which hypothalamic nucleus before release from the posterior pituitary?
- Supraoptic nucleus
- Paraventricular nucleus only for oxytocin
- Arcuate nucleus
- Ventromedial nucleus
Correct Answer: Supraoptic nucleus
Q44. Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression?
- Facial nerve (CN VII)
- Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
- Accessory nerve (CN XI)
- Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Correct Answer: Facial nerve (CN VII)
Q45. Taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by which nerve?
- Facial nerve (via chorda tympani)
- Glossopharyngeal nerve
- Vagus nerve
- Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve (via chorda tympani)
Q46. Wernicke’s area corresponds approximately to which Brodmann area?
- Area 22
- Area 4
- Area 17
- Area 6
Correct Answer: Area 22
Q47. Which transporter is important for drug efflux at the blood–brain barrier and limits CNS drug penetration?
- P-glycoprotein (ABCB1)
- GLUT1 glucose transporter
- SERT serotonin transporter
- EAAT glutamate transporter
Correct Answer: P-glycoprotein (ABCB1)
Q48. Which neuroimaging modality provides the best soft-tissue contrast for detailed brain anatomy?
- MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
- Plain skull X-ray
- Ultrasound
- Angiography only
Correct Answer: MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
Q49. EEG primarily records electrical activity generated by which neural region?
- Cerebral cortex
- Deep brain nuclei only
- Cerebellar cortex exclusively
- Spinal cord motoneurons
Correct Answer: Cerebral cortex
Q50. Which imaging technique measures regional brain metabolism and is useful in functional studies?
- PET (Positron Emission Tomography)
- CT (Computed Tomography)
- Plain radiography
- EEG
Correct Answer: PET (Positron Emission Tomography)
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