Solanaceous alkaloids – Scopolamine hydrobromide MCQs With Answer

Solanaceous alkaloids, especially scopolamine hydrobromide, are essential topics for B. Pharm students studying pharmacognosy and pharmacology. This introduction explains tropane alkaloid chemistry, sources (Datura, Hyoscyamus, Atropa), anticholinergic mechanism at muscarinic receptors, clinical uses such as motion sickness and preoperative sedation, pharmacokinetics, dosage forms (transdermal, parenteral), adverse effects, toxicology and laboratory assays. Emphasis on structure–activity relationships, metabolism, therapeutic monitoring, and differences from atropine prepares students for both exams and clinical application. It also covers drug interactions, dose calculations, and analytical methods like HPLC and TLC for assay and quality control. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which chemical class does scopolamine hydrobromide belong to?

  • Tropane (tropane alkaloid)
  • Isoquinoline alkaloid
  • Quinolone
  • Flavonoid

Correct Answer: Tropane (tropane alkaloid)

Q2. Scopolamine hydrobromide is commonly used clinically as which type of agent?

  • Beta-blocker
  • Anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
  • Cholinesterase inhibitor
  • Calcium channel blocker

Correct Answer: Anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)

Q3. Which plant is a major natural source of scopolamine?

  • Digitalis purpurea
  • Datura stramonium
  • Cinchona officinalis
  • Atropa belladonna is not a source

Correct Answer: Datura stramonium

Q4. Compared with atropine, scopolamine is characteristically:

  • Less able to cross the blood–brain barrier
  • More central nervous system–active and causes greater sedation and amnesia
  • Only peripheral in action with no CNS effects
  • Primarily an adrenergic agonist

Correct Answer: More central nervous system–active and causes greater sedation and amnesia

Q5. The transdermal scopolamine patch is primarily indicated for prevention of:

  • Hypertension
  • Motion sickness (nausea and vomiting)
  • Epileptic seizures
  • Diabetic neuropathy

Correct Answer: Motion sickness (nausea and vomiting)

Q6. Which structural feature distinguishes scopolamine from atropine?

  • Presence of an epoxide (oxygen bridge) in the tropane ring
  • Presence of a pyridine ring
  • A benzodiazepine core
  • Glycosidic linkage to glucose

Correct Answer: Presence of an epoxide (oxygen bridge) in the tropane ring

Q7. Scopolamine hydrobromide is the hydrobromide salt primarily because:

  • The salt form increases aqueous solubility for parenteral and topical formulations
  • The hydrobromide form is inert and not absorbed
  • The free base is more stable in tablets
  • It reduces CNS penetration permanently

Correct Answer: The salt form increases aqueous solubility for parenteral and topical formulations

Q8. A classic mnemonic describing anticholinergic toxicity includes “hot, blind, dry, and mad.” Which of these is a common anticholinergic sign caused by scopolamine?

  • Bradycardia
  • Excessive salivation
  • Dry mouth and dry skin
  • Hypersalivation and lacrimation

Correct Answer: Dry mouth and dry skin

Q9. The preferred antidote for severe scopolamine (anticholinergic) poisoning is:

  • Neostigmine
  • Atropine
  • Physostigmine
  • Flumazenil

Correct Answer: Physostigmine

Q10. Which analytical technique is commonly used for quantitative assay of scopolamine in formulations and biological samples?

  • HPLC (High-performance liquid chromatography)
  • Paper chromatography only
  • Colorimetry without separation
  • Infrared spectroscopy without separation

Correct Answer: HPLC (High-performance liquid chromatography)

Q11. Scopolamine exerts its pharmacologic action by competitively antagonizing which receptors?

  • Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
  • Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
  • Adrenergic alpha receptors
  • GABA-A receptors

Correct Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors

Q12. A practical extraction method for isolating scopolamine from plant material involves:

  • Acidify the plant extract, separate aqueous phase, then basify and extract into organic solvent
  • Direct extraction with nonpolar solvent only
  • Steam distillation as the primary method
  • Enzymatic hydrolysis to sugars

Correct Answer: Acidify the plant extract, separate aqueous phase, then basify and extract into organic solvent

Q13. Which reagent gives a characteristic color or precipitate with alkaloids like scopolamine in qualitative tests?

  • Biuret reagent
  • Dragendorff reagent
  • Fehling’s reagent
  • Silver nitrate only

Correct Answer: Dragendorff reagent

Q14. In terms of pharmacokinetics, scopolamine is primarily eliminated by:

  • Renal excretion after hepatic metabolism
  • Exhalation unchanged through lungs
  • Fecal excretion only
  • Unchanged via bile exclusively

Correct Answer: Renal excretion after hepatic metabolism

Q15. Which of the following is a contraindication to scopolamine use?

  • Open-angle glaucoma
  • Benign prostatic hyperplasia with urinary retention
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Controlled asthma

Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia with urinary retention

Q16. The scopolamine transdermal patch is typically applied behind the ear and is designed to provide therapeutic effect for approximately:

  • 24 hours
  • 72 hours (3 days)
  • 12 hours
  • 2 weeks

Correct Answer: 72 hours (3 days)

Q17. Which term is a synonym commonly used for scopolamine?

  • Hyoscine
  • Hyoscyamine
  • Quinine
  • Reserpine

Correct Answer: Hyoscine

Q18. Which muscarinic-mediated effect is reduced by scopolamine in the gastrointestinal tract?

  • Increased gastric secretions and motility
  • Decreased salivary secretion only
  • Increased bile production
  • Enhanced peristalsis

Correct Answer: Increased gastric secretions and motility

Q19. Scopolamine’s ability to cause central sedation and amnesia relates to its:

  • High affinity for beta-adrenergic receptors
  • Lipophilicity and capacity to cross the blood–brain barrier
  • Complete inability to cross membranes
  • Strong inhibition of monoamine oxidase

Correct Answer: Lipophilicity and capacity to cross the blood–brain barrier

Q20. In drug interaction terms, co-administration of scopolamine with which group would increase anticholinergic adverse effects?

  • Beta-lactam antibiotics
  • First-generation antihistamines and tricyclic antidepressants
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Insulin

Correct Answer: First-generation antihistamines and tricyclic antidepressants

Q21. The biosynthetic precursor amino acid involved in tropane alkaloid biosynthesis (leading to scopolamine) is:

  • Tryptophan
  • Tyrosine
  • Ornithine (via putrescine)
  • Phenylalanine

Correct Answer: Ornithine (via putrescine)

Q22. Which formulation of scopolamine is commonly used in hospitals for short-term parenteral therapy?

  • Hydrobromide injectable solution
  • Sustained-release oral tablet of the free base
  • Topical cream only
  • Intranasal powder

Correct Answer: Hydrobromide injectable solution

Q23. Which of the following adverse effects is commonly associated with scopolamine therapy?

  • Excessive lacrimation
  • Blurred vision and mydriasis
  • Hypersalivation
  • Bradykinesia

Correct Answer: Blurred vision and mydriasis

Q24. For quality control of scopolamine-containing products, which rapid qualitative test may be used alongside chromatographic methods?

  • Dragendorff spray on TLC plate
  • Benedict’s solution
  • Biuret test
  • Salkowski test

Correct Answer: Dragendorff spray on TLC plate

Q25. Which population is at increased risk of adverse central anticholinergic effects from scopolamine?

  • Children under 2 years only
  • Elderly patients with cognitive impairment
  • Young athletes
  • Patients with well-controlled diabetes

Correct Answer: Elderly patients with cognitive impairment

Q26. Which statement about scopolamine pharmacodynamics is correct?

  • It is an irreversible muscarinic receptor antagonist
  • It is a competitive (reversible) muscarinic receptor antagonist
  • It directly stimulates muscarinic receptors
  • It selectively blocks nicotinic receptors only

Correct Answer: It is a competitive (reversible) muscarinic receptor antagonist

Q27. The common immediate management step for a patient with anticholinergic delirium from scopolamine includes:

  • Administration of physostigmine under monitoring
  • High-dose benzodiazepine only
  • Immediate dialysis as first-line
  • Oral activated charcoal without further intervention

Correct Answer: Administration of physostigmine under monitoring

Q28. Which storage recommendation is appropriate for scopolamine hydrobromide formulations?

  • Store protected from light and moisture in a cool, dry place
  • Store in direct sunlight to maintain potency
  • Keep frozen at all times
  • Store in highly alkaline solution

Correct Answer: Store protected from light and moisture in a cool, dry place

Q29. In forensic or toxicology contexts, scopolamine has been reported to cause:

  • Profound sedation, amnesia and sometimes criminal misuse
  • Immediate convulsions in all cases
  • Sudden hypoglycemia
  • Complete absence of any CNS effects

Correct Answer: Profound sedation, amnesia and sometimes criminal misuse

Q30. Which receptor family mediates the peripheral effects of scopolamine on heart rate (tachycardia)?

  • Muscarinic M2 receptors in the heart
  • Beta-2 adrenergic receptors
  • GABA receptors
  • NMDA receptors

Correct Answer: Muscarinic M2 receptors in the heart

Q31. Which laboratory method offers the most specific identification of scopolamine in a plant extract?

  • Thin-layer chromatography with visual spray only
  • HPLC coupled with mass spectrometry (HPLC–MS)
  • Observation of odor
  • Simple aqueous color test without separation

Correct Answer: HPLC coupled with mass spectrometry (HPLC–MS)

Q32. Which of the following describes the acid–base characteristics of scopolamine as a drug molecule?

  • It is a tertiary amine and can be protonated (salt formation)
  • It is a strong mineral acid
  • It is a permanent quaternary ammonium compound
  • It is neutral and cannot form salts

Correct Answer: It is a tertiary amine and can be protonated (salt formation)

Q33. Which clinical use is less appropriate for scopolamine?

  • Preoperative sedation to reduce secretions
  • Treatment of motion sickness
  • First-line therapy for bacterial infections
  • Topical mydriasis for short ophthalmic procedures

Correct Answer: First-line therapy for bacterial infections

Q34. Which adverse urinary effect may develop with scopolamine therapy?

  • Polyuria with decreased residual urine
  • Urinary retention and difficulty voiding
  • Increased urine concentration and diuresis
  • Immediate improvement of obstructive uropathy

Correct Answer: Urinary retention and difficulty voiding

Q35. The primary reason scopolamine is formulated as hydrobromide in many products is:

  • Hydrobromide salts are insoluble
  • To enhance water solubility and formulation stability
  • To increase volatility for inhalation
  • To prevent skin absorption altogether

Correct Answer: To enhance water solubility and formulation stability

Q36. For prophylaxis of motion sickness using a transdermal patch, when is it recommended to apply the scopolamine patch?

  • Immediately after boarding the vehicle only
  • At least 4 hours before travel
  • Only after symptoms start
  • One week before travel

Correct Answer: At least 4 hours before travel

Q37. Which of the following is a true statement about scopolamine and atropine comparison?

  • Scopolamine produces stronger central effects than atropine
  • Atropine is more centrally sedating than scopolamine
  • Neither crosses the blood–brain barrier
  • Both are nicotinic agonists

Correct Answer: Scopolamine produces stronger central effects than atropine

Q38. In analytical chemistry for pharmaceuticals, a stability-indicating assay for scopolamine must detect:

  • Only the active drug, ignoring degradation products
  • Both the active drug and its degradation products
  • Only water content
  • Only the color changes on storage

Correct Answer: Both the active drug and its degradation products

Q39. Which of the following patient groups should generally avoid scopolamine patches?

  • Patients with controlled hypothyroidism
  • Patients with narrow-angle glaucoma
  • Young healthy adults
  • Patients wearing hearing aids

Correct Answer: Patients with narrow-angle glaucoma

Q40. Which of the following mechanisms best explains scopolamine’s antiemetic effect in motion sickness?

  • Peripheral blockade of H2 histamine receptors in gut
  • Central blockade of muscarinic receptors in vestibular nuclei and brainstem vomiting center
  • Agonism at serotonin 5-HT3 receptors
  • Stimulation of proprioceptors to damp vestibular signals

Correct Answer: Central blockade of muscarinic receptors in vestibular nuclei and brainstem vomiting center

Q41. Which clinical sign would least likely be caused by scopolamine overdose?

  • Hyperthermia from decreased sweating
  • Pupillary constriction (miosis)
  • Confusion and hallucinations
  • Tachycardia

Correct Answer: Pupillary constriction (miosis)

Q42. During formulation development, scopolamine hydrobromide tablets require consideration of the drug’s:

  • Water solubility and hygroscopicity
  • Complete insolubility in water
  • Inability to form salts
  • Requirement to be stored at high humidity

Correct Answer: Water solubility and hygroscopicity

Q43. Which of the following is a correct safety counseling point for patients using scopolamine transdermal patches?

  • Place the patch on the lower leg for best absorption
  • Avoid touching your eyes after handling the patch to prevent ocular effects
  • It is safe to use multiple patches for increased effect
  • Apply the patch immediately after showering and remove after 1 hour

Correct Answer: Avoid touching your eyes after handling the patch to prevent ocular effects

Q44. Scopolamine’s pharmacological classification in the WHO ATC system falls under which group?

  • Antihypertensives
  • Antiemetics and antinauseants (anticholinergics)
  • Antidiabetics
  • Anticoagulants

Correct Answer: Antiemetics and antinauseants (anticholinergics)

Q45. Which laboratory parameter is most directly useful to monitor in severe scopolamine poisoning when physostigmine is administered?

  • Blood glucose only
  • Cardiac rhythm and respiratory status under monitoring
  • Serum sodium exclusively
  • Urine ketones only

Correct Answer: Cardiac rhythm and respiratory status under monitoring

Q46. The common pharmacognostic family name for plants producing scopolamine is:

  • Fabaceae
  • Solanaceae (nightshade family)
  • Apiaceae
  • Poaceae

Correct Answer: Solanaceae (nightshade family)

Q47. Which physicochemical property of scopolamine contributes to its readiness to form salts like hydrobromide?

  • Presence of a tertiary amine nitrogen that can be protonated
  • Multiple carboxylic acid groups
  • Permanent positive charge as a quaternary ammonium
  • Complete nonpolar character

Correct Answer: Presence of a tertiary amine nitrogen that can be protonated

Q48. In formulation analysis, which mobile phase detection combination is most likely used to detect scopolamine by HPLC?

  • HPLC with UV or MS detection after appropriate mobile phase selection
  • HPLC with detection by simple pH meter only
  • Paper chromatography with smell detection
  • Gas chromatography without derivatization only

Correct Answer: HPLC with UV or MS detection after appropriate mobile phase selection

Q49. Which clinical scenario would prompt caution or dose reduction when considering scopolamine therapy?

  • Young adult with seasonal allergies
  • Elderly patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia and cognitive impairment
  • Short-term traveler with acute diarrhea
  • Patient with well-controlled asthma on inhalers

Correct Answer: Elderly patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia and cognitive impairment

Q50. Which of the following correctly pairs the compound with its common name?

  • Scopolamine = Hyoscine
  • Scopolamine = Morphine
  • Scopolamine = Penicillin
  • Scopolamine = Aspirin

Correct Answer: Scopolamine = Hyoscine

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