Screening models for ANS activity – sympathomimetics MCQs With Answer

Screening models for ANS activity – sympathomimetics are essential for B.Pharm students to evaluate drug effects on the autonomic nervous system. This introduction covers key screening approaches: isolated tissue preparations (rabbit aorta, rat vas deferens, guinea-pig trachea), in vivo blood pressure and heart rate assays, electrical field stimulation (EFS), and biochemical tests to distinguish direct versus indirect sympathomimetics. Emphasis is on receptor selectivity (α-adrenergic, β-adrenergic), use of antagonists (phentolamine, propranolol), uptake inhibitors, dose–response curves, and pharmacological parameters (EC50, pA2). Mastery of these models helps interpret agonist/antagonist actions and design reliable bioassays. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which isolated tissue is most commonly used to assess α1-adrenergic vasoconstrictor activity in screening sympathomimetics?

  • Guinea-pig ileum
  • Rat vas deferens
  • Rabbit aorta
  • Langendorff-perfused heart

Correct Answer: Rabbit aorta

Q2. Which model is particularly useful to evaluate β2-adrenergic bronchodilator activity?

  • Guinea-pig tracheal smooth muscle
  • Rabbit aorta strip
  • Rat vas deferens
  • Frog rectus abdominis

Correct Answer: Guinea-pig tracheal smooth muscle

Q3. Electrical field stimulation (EFS) in isolated tissue preparations is used to:

  • Directly activate postsynaptic receptors without neurotransmitter release
  • Induce nerve terminal release of endogenous neurotransmitters
  • Measure passive diffusion of drugs across membranes
  • Quantify receptor density by radioligand binding

Correct Answer: Induce nerve terminal release of endogenous neurotransmitters

Q4. Which agent is used to distinguish α-adrenergic from β-adrenergic mediated responses in functional assays?

  • Atropine
  • Phentolamine
  • Hexamethonium
  • Reserpine

Correct Answer: Phentolamine

Q5. A drug that increases heart rate and contractility primarily via β1-adrenoceptors is best screened using:

  • Isolated rabbit aorta
  • Langendorff-perfused heart or isolated atria
  • Guinea-pig ileum contraction assay
  • Rat vas deferens EFS

Correct Answer: Langendorff-perfused heart or isolated atria

Q6. How does reserpine pretreatment help distinguish direct from indirect sympathomimetics?

  • It increases receptor sensitivity to direct agonists
  • It depletes vesicular NE, reducing effects of indirect releasers
  • It blocks postsynaptic receptors selectively
  • It inhibits monoamine oxidase (MAO) activity

Correct Answer: It depletes vesicular NE, reducing effects of indirect releasers

Q7. Tyramine produces pressor responses by which primary mechanism?

  • Direct activation of β2 receptors
  • Competitive antagonism at α receptors
  • Displacing NE from storage vesicles (indirect release)
  • Inhibiting catecholamine synthesis

Correct Answer: Displacing NE from storage vesicles (indirect release)

Q8. In a dose–response curve, EC50 represents:

  • The maximum effect achievable by a drug
  • The dose required to produce 50% of maximum response
  • The concentration of antagonist that halves receptor number
  • The time to reach half-maximal effect

Correct Answer: The dose required to produce 50% of maximum response

Q9. Which antagonist would you use to confirm β-adrenergic mediation of an observed relaxation in tracheal smooth muscle?

  • Prazosin
  • Phentolamine
  • Propranolol
  • Atropine

Correct Answer: Propranolol

Q10. The rat vas deferens preparation is commonly used to study:

  • Cardiac β1 responses only
  • Adrenergic neurotransmission and both α and purinergic components
  • Cholinergic smooth muscle contraction exclusively
  • Endothelial-dependent vasodilation mechanisms

Correct Answer: Adrenergic neurotransmission and both α and purinergic components

Q11. Which experimental treatment would reduce the effect of a releasing agent like tyramine?

  • Inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO)
  • Blockade of neuronal uptake by desipramine
  • Pretreatment with reserpine
  • Administration of propranolol

Correct Answer: Pretreatment with reserpine

Q12. A competitive antagonist produces which characteristic in a Schild plot?

  • A Schild slope of approximately 1 and parallel rightward shift of agonist curves
  • An irreversible downward shift of maximal response
  • A non-parallel depression of the agonist curve with slope >1
  • No change in agonist potency but reduced efficacy

Correct Answer: A Schild slope of approximately 1 and parallel rightward shift of agonist curves

Q13. Which assay can rapidly indicate whether a sympathomimetic is direct-acting at receptors?

  • Response remaining after reserpine treatment
  • Loss of effect after MAO inhibition
  • Enhanced effect when neuronal uptake is blocked
  • Reduced response following atropine

Correct Answer: Response remaining after reserpine treatment

Q14. In vitro blockade of the neuronal sodium channel with tetrodotoxin (TTX) during EFS will:

  • Increase neurotransmitter release
  • Prevent nerve-evoked contractions by blocking action potentials
  • Selectively block postsynaptic α receptors
  • Enhance indirect sympathomimetic effects

Correct Answer: Prevent nerve-evoked contractions by blocking action potentials

Q15. Which measurement differentiates potency from efficacy in sympathomimetic screening?

  • Potency = maximal response; Efficacy = EC50
  • Potency = EC50 (or pEC50); Efficacy = maximal response (Emax)
  • Both potency and efficacy are identical measures
  • Potency = pA2; Efficacy = Schild slope

Correct Answer: Potency = EC50 (or pEC50); Efficacy = maximal response (Emax)

Q16. Which experimental manipulation helps identify involvement of neuronal uptake (Uptake1) in sympathomimetic action?

  • Use of atropine to block muscarinic receptors
  • Use of desipramine or cocaine to inhibit norepinephrine uptake
  • Pretreatment with prazosin to block α1 receptors
  • Removal of endothelium from aortic rings

Correct Answer: Use of desipramine or cocaine to inhibit norepinephrine uptake

Q17. A drug that produces vasoconstriction and is blocked by prazosin is likely acting at which receptor subtype?

  • β2-adrenoceptor
  • α1-adrenoceptor
  • β1-adrenoceptor
  • α2-adrenoceptor

Correct Answer: α1-adrenoceptor

Q18. Which in vivo assay is commonly used to measure systemic sympathomimetic pressor activity?

  • Anesthetized rat or rabbit blood pressure recording (pressor response)
  • Isolated guinea-pig ileum contraction assay
  • Perfused isolated kidney secretion test
  • In vitro radioligand binding to β receptors

Correct Answer: Anesthetized rat or rabbit blood pressure recording (pressor response)

Q19. During screening, a compound increases contractile response in rat vas deferens but is abolished after propranolol. This suggests:

  • Action mainly via β-adrenoceptors
  • Action mainly via α-adrenoceptors
  • Non-adrenergic, cholinergic action
  • Action due to direct muscle toxicity

Correct Answer: Action mainly via β-adrenoceptors

Q20. Radioligand binding assays complement functional screening by providing information on:

  • Catecholamine release from nerves
  • Receptor affinity and number (Bmax and Kd)
  • In vivo blood pressure changes
  • Rate of neurotransmitter reuptake

Correct Answer: Receptor affinity and number (Bmax and Kd)

Q21. A molecule that is a partial agonist at β receptors will show which characteristic in dose–response assays?

  • Produce full Emax equal to a full agonist
  • Produce lower maximal effect than a full agonist despite occupying receptors
  • Act as an irreversible antagonist
  • Only produce effects in presence of an antagonist

Correct Answer: Produce lower maximal effect than a full agonist despite occupying receptors

Q22. Exposure of isolated tissues to monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors will most likely:

  • Enhance effects of indirect sympathomimetics that require intracellular metabolism
  • Completely block direct α-agonist responses
  • Decrease receptor affinity for agonists
  • Prevent EFS-evoked neurotransmitter release

Correct Answer: Enhance effects of indirect sympathomimetics that require intracellular metabolism

Q23. Which agent would you use to selectively block presynaptic α2 receptors to examine autoreceptor involvement?

  • Yohimbine
  • Prazosin
  • Propranolol
  • Atropine

Correct Answer: Yohimbine

Q24. In a bioassay, a rightward parallel shift of the agonist curve without change in Emax after antagonist addition indicates:

  • Non-competitive antagonism
  • Competitive (surmountable) antagonism
  • Irreversible receptor blockade
  • Agonist degradation over time

Correct Answer: Competitive (surmountable) antagonism

Q25. Which tissue preparation is useful to detect both adrenergic contraction and purinergic components, often separated pharmacologically?

  • Langendorff heart
  • Rat vas deferens
  • Rabbit aorta endothelium-intact ring
  • Guinea-pig ileum longitudinal muscle

Correct Answer: Rat vas deferens

Q26. A test compound shows reduced effect when neuronal uptake is blocked by cocaine. This observation suggests the compound is likely:

  • A direct receptor agonist
  • An indirect sympathomimetic requiring uptake into nerve terminals
  • A β2-selective agonist acting directly on smooth muscle
  • An irreversible antagonist

Correct Answer: An indirect sympathomimetic requiring uptake into nerve terminals

Q27. Which parameter estimates antagonist potency from functional assays and is defined as the negative log of the antagonist concentration producing a twofold shift in agonist EC50?

  • pEC50
  • pA2
  • IC50
  • Kd

Correct Answer: pA2

Q28. To pharmacologically isolate β-adrenergic effects in vascular preparations, which combination is commonly used?

  • Atropine + hexamethonium
  • Propranolol + phentolamine
  • Phentolamine to block α receptors and then test β-mediated relaxation
  • Yohimbine + prazosin

Correct Answer: Phentolamine to block α receptors and then test β-mediated relaxation

Q29. Which outcome indicates a sympathomimetic is a direct β-agonist during in vitro screening?

  • Effect abolished by reserpine
  • Effect persists after reserpine and is blocked by propranolol
  • Effect increased by uptake inhibitors
  • Effect reduced by MAO inhibitors

Correct Answer: Effect persists after reserpine and is blocked by propranolol

Q30. When designing screening protocols for ANS sympathomimetic activity, which strategy improves mechanistic interpretation?

  • Use a single tissue and avoid antagonist challenges
  • Combine multiple tissues, receptor-selective antagonists, uptake/MAO manipulations, and EFS to differentiate direct vs indirect actions
  • Rely solely on in vivo blood pressure changes without in vitro follow-up
  • Avoid reserpine or uptake inhibitors because they complicate results

Correct Answer: Combine multiple tissues, receptor-selective antagonists, uptake/MAO manipulations, and EFS to differentiate direct vs indirect actions

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