Screening models for ANS activity – sympathomimetics MCQs With Answer

Screening models for ANS activity – sympathomimetics are essential for B.Pharm students to evaluate drug effects on the autonomic nervous system. This introduction covers key screening approaches: isolated tissue preparations (rabbit aorta, rat vas deferens, guinea-pig trachea), in vivo blood pressure and heart rate assays, electrical field stimulation (EFS), and biochemical tests to distinguish direct versus indirect sympathomimetics. Emphasis is on receptor selectivity (α-adrenergic, β-adrenergic), use of antagonists (phentolamine, propranolol), uptake inhibitors, dose–response curves, and pharmacological parameters (EC50, pA2). Mastery of these models helps interpret agonist/antagonist actions and design reliable bioassays. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which isolated tissue is most commonly used to assess α1-adrenergic vasoconstrictor activity in screening sympathomimetics?

  • Guinea-pig ileum
  • Rat vas deferens
  • Rabbit aorta
  • Langendorff-perfused heart

Correct Answer: Rabbit aorta

Q2. Which model is particularly useful to evaluate β2-adrenergic bronchodilator activity?

  • Guinea-pig tracheal smooth muscle
  • Rabbit aorta strip
  • Rat vas deferens
  • Frog rectus abdominis

Correct Answer: Guinea-pig tracheal smooth muscle

Q3. Electrical field stimulation (EFS) in isolated tissue preparations is used to:

  • Directly activate postsynaptic receptors without neurotransmitter release
  • Induce nerve terminal release of endogenous neurotransmitters
  • Measure passive diffusion of drugs across membranes
  • Quantify receptor density by radioligand binding

Correct Answer: Induce nerve terminal release of endogenous neurotransmitters

Q4. Which agent is used to distinguish α-adrenergic from β-adrenergic mediated responses in functional assays?

  • Atropine
  • Phentolamine
  • Hexamethonium
  • Reserpine

Correct Answer: Phentolamine

Q5. A drug that increases heart rate and contractility primarily via β1-adrenoceptors is best screened using:

  • Isolated rabbit aorta
  • Langendorff-perfused heart or isolated atria
  • Guinea-pig ileum contraction assay
  • Rat vas deferens EFS

Correct Answer: Langendorff-perfused heart or isolated atria

Q6. How does reserpine pretreatment help distinguish direct from indirect sympathomimetics?

  • It increases receptor sensitivity to direct agonists
  • It depletes vesicular NE, reducing effects of indirect releasers
  • It blocks postsynaptic receptors selectively
  • It inhibits monoamine oxidase (MAO) activity

Correct Answer: It depletes vesicular NE, reducing effects of indirect releasers

Q7. Tyramine produces pressor responses by which primary mechanism?

  • Direct activation of β2 receptors
  • Competitive antagonism at α receptors
  • Displacing NE from storage vesicles (indirect release)
  • Inhibiting catecholamine synthesis

Correct Answer: Displacing NE from storage vesicles (indirect release)

Q8. In a dose–response curve, EC50 represents:

  • The maximum effect achievable by a drug
  • The dose required to produce 50% of maximum response
  • The concentration of antagonist that halves receptor number
  • The time to reach half-maximal effect

Correct Answer: The dose required to produce 50% of maximum response

Q9. Which antagonist would you use to confirm β-adrenergic mediation of an observed relaxation in tracheal smooth muscle?

  • Prazosin
  • Phentolamine
  • Propranolol
  • Atropine

Correct Answer: Propranolol

Q10. The rat vas deferens preparation is commonly used to study:

  • Cardiac β1 responses only
  • Adrenergic neurotransmission and both α and purinergic components
  • Cholinergic smooth muscle contraction exclusively
  • Endothelial-dependent vasodilation mechanisms

Correct Answer: Adrenergic neurotransmission and both α and purinergic components

Q11. Which experimental treatment would reduce the effect of a releasing agent like tyramine?

  • Inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO)
  • Blockade of neuronal uptake by desipramine
  • Pretreatment with reserpine
  • Administration of propranolol

Correct Answer: Pretreatment with reserpine

Q12. A competitive antagonist produces which characteristic in a Schild plot?

  • A Schild slope of approximately 1 and parallel rightward shift of agonist curves
  • An irreversible downward shift of maximal response
  • A non-parallel depression of the agonist curve with slope >1
  • No change in agonist potency but reduced efficacy

Correct Answer: A Schild slope of approximately 1 and parallel rightward shift of agonist curves

Q13. Which assay can rapidly indicate whether a sympathomimetic is direct-acting at receptors?

  • Response remaining after reserpine treatment
  • Loss of effect after MAO inhibition
  • Enhanced effect when neuronal uptake is blocked
  • Reduced response following atropine

Correct Answer: Response remaining after reserpine treatment

Q14. In vitro blockade of the neuronal sodium channel with tetrodotoxin (TTX) during EFS will:

  • Increase neurotransmitter release
  • Prevent nerve-evoked contractions by blocking action potentials
  • Selectively block postsynaptic α receptors
  • Enhance indirect sympathomimetic effects

Correct Answer: Prevent nerve-evoked contractions by blocking action potentials

Q15. Which measurement differentiates potency from efficacy in sympathomimetic screening?

  • Potency = maximal response; Efficacy = EC50
  • Potency = EC50 (or pEC50); Efficacy = maximal response (Emax)
  • Both potency and efficacy are identical measures
  • Potency = pA2; Efficacy = Schild slope

Correct Answer: Potency = EC50 (or pEC50); Efficacy = maximal response (Emax)

Q16. Which experimental manipulation helps identify involvement of neuronal uptake (Uptake1) in sympathomimetic action?

  • Use of atropine to block muscarinic receptors
  • Use of desipramine or cocaine to inhibit norepinephrine uptake
  • Pretreatment with prazosin to block α1 receptors
  • Removal of endothelium from aortic rings

Correct Answer: Use of desipramine or cocaine to inhibit norepinephrine uptake

Q17. A drug that produces vasoconstriction and is blocked by prazosin is likely acting at which receptor subtype?

  • β2-adrenoceptor
  • α1-adrenoceptor
  • β1-adrenoceptor
  • α2-adrenoceptor

Correct Answer: α1-adrenoceptor

Q18. Which in vivo assay is commonly used to measure systemic sympathomimetic pressor activity?

  • Anesthetized rat or rabbit blood pressure recording (pressor response)
  • Isolated guinea-pig ileum contraction assay
  • Perfused isolated kidney secretion test
  • In vitro radioligand binding to β receptors

Correct Answer: Anesthetized rat or rabbit blood pressure recording (pressor response)

Q19. During screening, a compound increases contractile response in rat vas deferens but is abolished after propranolol. This suggests:

  • Action mainly via β-adrenoceptors
  • Action mainly via α-adrenoceptors
  • Non-adrenergic, cholinergic action
  • Action due to direct muscle toxicity

Correct Answer: Action mainly via β-adrenoceptors

Q20. Radioligand binding assays complement functional screening by providing information on:

  • Catecholamine release from nerves
  • Receptor affinity and number (Bmax and Kd)
  • In vivo blood pressure changes
  • Rate of neurotransmitter reuptake

Correct Answer: Receptor affinity and number (Bmax and Kd)

Q21. A molecule that is a partial agonist at β receptors will show which characteristic in dose–response assays?

  • Produce full Emax equal to a full agonist
  • Produce lower maximal effect than a full agonist despite occupying receptors
  • Act as an irreversible antagonist
  • Only produce effects in presence of an antagonist

Correct Answer: Produce lower maximal effect than a full agonist despite occupying receptors

Q22. Exposure of isolated tissues to monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors will most likely:

  • Enhance effects of indirect sympathomimetics that require intracellular metabolism
  • Completely block direct α-agonist responses
  • Decrease receptor affinity for agonists
  • Prevent EFS-evoked neurotransmitter release

Correct Answer: Enhance effects of indirect sympathomimetics that require intracellular metabolism

Q23. Which agent would you use to selectively block presynaptic α2 receptors to examine autoreceptor involvement?

  • Yohimbine
  • Prazosin
  • Propranolol
  • Atropine

Correct Answer: Yohimbine

Q24. In a bioassay, a rightward parallel shift of the agonist curve without change in Emax after antagonist addition indicates:

  • Non-competitive antagonism
  • Competitive (surmountable) antagonism
  • Irreversible receptor blockade
  • Agonist degradation over time

Correct Answer: Competitive (surmountable) antagonism

Q25. Which tissue preparation is useful to detect both adrenergic contraction and purinergic components, often separated pharmacologically?

  • Langendorff heart
  • Rat vas deferens
  • Rabbit aorta endothelium-intact ring
  • Guinea-pig ileum longitudinal muscle

Correct Answer: Rat vas deferens

Q26. A test compound shows reduced effect when neuronal uptake is blocked by cocaine. This observation suggests the compound is likely:

  • A direct receptor agonist
  • An indirect sympathomimetic requiring uptake into nerve terminals
  • A β2-selective agonist acting directly on smooth muscle
  • An irreversible antagonist

Correct Answer: An indirect sympathomimetic requiring uptake into nerve terminals

Q27. Which parameter estimates antagonist potency from functional assays and is defined as the negative log of the antagonist concentration producing a twofold shift in agonist EC50?

  • pEC50
  • pA2
  • IC50
  • Kd

Correct Answer: pA2

Q28. To pharmacologically isolate β-adrenergic effects in vascular preparations, which combination is commonly used?

  • Atropine + hexamethonium
  • Propranolol + phentolamine
  • Phentolamine to block α receptors and then test β-mediated relaxation
  • Yohimbine + prazosin

Correct Answer: Phentolamine to block α receptors and then test β-mediated relaxation

Q29. Which outcome indicates a sympathomimetic is a direct β-agonist during in vitro screening?

  • Effect abolished by reserpine
  • Effect persists after reserpine and is blocked by propranolol
  • Effect increased by uptake inhibitors
  • Effect reduced by MAO inhibitors

Correct Answer: Effect persists after reserpine and is blocked by propranolol

Q30. When designing screening protocols for ANS sympathomimetic activity, which strategy improves mechanistic interpretation?

  • Use a single tissue and avoid antagonist challenges
  • Combine multiple tissues, receptor-selective antagonists, uptake/MAO manipulations, and EFS to differentiate direct vs indirect actions
  • Rely solely on in vivo blood pressure changes without in vitro follow-up
  • Avoid reserpine or uptake inhibitors because they complicate results

Correct Answer: Combine multiple tissues, receptor-selective antagonists, uptake/MAO manipulations, and EFS to differentiate direct vs indirect actions

Author

  • G S Sachin Author Pharmacy Freak
    : Author

    G S Sachin is a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. He holds a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research and creates clear, accurate educational content on pharmacology, drug mechanisms of action, pharmacist learning, and GPAT exam preparation.

    Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com

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