Screening approaches for anticancer and hepatoprotective agents MCQs With Answer

Introduction

Screening approaches for anticancer and hepatoprotective agents MCQs With Answer is designed to strengthen M.Pharm students’ understanding of experimental strategies used to discover and evaluate anticancer and hepatoprotective compounds. This collection emphasizes practical screening methods—both in vitro and in vivo—highlighting assay principles, advantages, limitations, and interpretation of results. Questions cover cytotoxicity assays, apoptosis and cell‑cycle analyses, 3D tumor models, animal models, hepatotoxicity induction protocols, biochemical and histological biomarkers, and screening validation metrics. The MCQs aim to reinforce critical thinking needed for designing studies, selecting appropriate models, and evaluating translational relevance of screening outcomes in pharmacological and toxicological research.

Q1. Which assay measures cell metabolic activity by reduction of a tetrazolium salt to a colored formazan product?

• SRB (Sulforhodamine B) assay
• MTT assay
• LDH leakage assay
• BrdU incorporation assay

Correct Answer: MTT assay

Q2. Which assay quantifies total cellular protein as an index of cell density and is commonly used for cytotoxicity screening?

• Annexin V binding assay
• SRB (Sulforhodamine B) assay
• Comet assay
• JC-1 mitochondrial membrane potential assay

Correct Answer: SRB (Sulforhodamine B) assay

Q3. Which method is a simple viability assay based on membrane integrity using a vital exclusion dye?

• Trypan blue exclusion
• Caspase‑3 activity assay
• Colony formation (clonogenic) assay
• Spheroid invasion assay

Correct Answer: Trypan blue exclusion

Q4. Incorporation of which thymidine analog is used to measure DNA synthesis and cell proliferation?

• Propidium iodide (PI)
• BrdU (Bromodeoxyuridine)
• Crystal violet
• Annexin V

Correct Answer: BrdU (Bromodeoxyuridine)

Q5. The clonogenic assay primarily assesses which property of cancer cells after treatment?

• Short‑term metabolic activity
• Ability to migrate through matrix
• Reproductive (colony‑forming) viability
• Membrane lipid peroxidation

Correct Answer: Reproductive (colony‑forming) viability

Q6. Annexin V staining in combination with propidium iodide primarily detects which early apoptotic event?

• Loss of mitochondrial membrane potential
• Externalization of phosphatidylserine
• Caspase‑independent necrosis
• DNA strand breaks

Correct Answer: Externalization of phosphatidylserine

Q7. Measurement of increased caspase‑3 activity in cells after treatment is most indicative of which process?

• Autophagy induction
• Execution phase of apoptosis
• Necroptosis
• Cell senescence

Correct Answer: Execution phase of apoptosis

Q8. Which staining dye is commonly used in flow cytometric cell cycle analysis to quantify cellular DNA content?

• Annexin V
• Propidium iodide (PI)
• Rhodamine 123
• Calcein AM

Correct Answer: Propidium iodide (PI)

Q9. A key advantage of 3D tumor spheroid models over 2D cell monolayers in anticancer screening is:

• Lower cost and simpler imaging
• Uniform oxygen and nutrient distribution
• Better mimicry of tumor microenvironment gradients and drug penetration
• Exclusive compatibility with only one assay type

Correct Answer: Better mimicry of tumor microenvironment gradients and drug penetration

Q10. Why are zebrafish embryos increasingly used in early anticancer and toxicity screening?

• They require large compound quantities and long study times
• They are opaque and require complex imaging
• High throughput, transparency, and conserved tumor biology pathways
• They do not model angiogenesis or metastasis

Correct Answer: High throughput, transparency, and conserved tumor biology pathways

Q11. The chick chorioallantoic membrane (CAM) assay is most commonly used to evaluate which tumor‑related property?

• DNA repair capacity
• Antiangiogenic or angiogenic potential
• Mitochondrial respiration rate
• Hepatocyte specific enzyme induction

Correct Answer: Antiangiogenic or angiogenic potential

Q12. Compared to subcutaneous xenografts, orthotopic tumor models are preferred when the goal is to:

• Measure only primary tumor growth without metastasis
• Avoid use of immunocompromised animals
• Replicate the tumor microenvironment and metastatic behavior
• Simplify tumor measurement by calipers in all cases

Correct Answer: Replicate the tumor microenvironment and metastatic behavior

Q13. Which compound is widely used as a positive control in experimental hepatoprotective studies?

• Diclofenac
• Silymarin
• Carbon tetrachloride
• Nitrofurantoin

Correct Answer: Silymarin

Q14. Which chemical is classically used to induce experimental hepatic injury via formation of free radicals and lipid peroxidation?

• D‑galactosamine
• Acetaminophen (paracetamol)
• Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
• Thioacetamide (TAA)

Correct Answer: Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)

Q15. Elevation of which serum enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury in rodents and humans?

• Creatine kinase (CK)
• Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Correct Answer: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

Q16. Release of which intracellular enzyme into culture medium is commonly measured as an indicator of compromised cell membrane integrity in hepatocyte assays?

• Caspase‑9
• Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
• Glucose‑6‑phosphatase
• Albumin

Correct Answer: Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Q17. Depletion of intracellular reduced glutathione (GSH) in hepatocytes after exposure to a test compound primarily indicates:

• Enhanced protein synthesis
• Activation of cytochrome P450 expression
• Oxidative stress and reduced antioxidant capacity
• Increased bile acid secretion

Correct Answer: Oxidative stress and reduced antioxidant capacity

Q18. Which in vitro hepatocyte model best retains liver‑specific metabolic and synthetic functions for short‑term screening?

• HepG2 cell line
• Primary isolated hepatocytes
• Fibroblast cell culture
• Yeast expression system

Correct Answer: Primary isolated hepatocytes

Q19. In high‑throughput screening assay validation, a Z’ (Z‑prime) factor value greater than which threshold indicates an excellent assay?

• 0.0
• 0.3
• 0.5
• 1.5

Correct Answer: 0.5

Q20. A phenotypic screening approach differs from a target‑based screen primarily because phenotypic screens:

• Require prior knowledge of the molecular target to be effective
• Measure a disease‑relevant cellular or organismal phenotype without predefining the molecular target
• Are exclusively in silico and do not use biological systems
• Always have higher throughput and lower complexity than target‑based assays

Correct Answer: Measure a disease‑relevant cellular or organismal phenotype without predefining the molecular target

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