SAR of quinoline antimalarials MCQs With Answer

Structure–Activity Relationship (SAR) of quinoline antimalarials is a focused topic for B. Pharm students exploring how chemical modifications of the quinoline core influence antimalarial potency, selectivity, pharmacokinetics and toxicity. Key concepts include the 4-aminoquinoline pharmacophore, side‑chain length and basicity, 7‑position halogenation (as in chloroquine), heme binding and inhibition of hemozoin formation, mechanisms of resistance (pfcrt, efflux), and distinctions between 4‑amino and 8‑amino quinolines (blood vs liver stage). Understanding SAR guides drug design to improve efficacy and reduce adverse effects like cardiotoxicity or hemolysis. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which structural feature is considered essential for classical 4‑aminoquinoline antimalarial activity?

  • A free 4‑amino group on the quinoline ring
  • A sulfonamide at the 2‑position
  • A hydroxyl at the 6‑position
  • A fused benzofuran moiety

Correct Answer: A free 4‑amino group on the quinoline ring

Q2. The primary molecular target of many quinoline antimalarials is:

  • Parasite DNA gyrase
  • Heme (ferriprotoporphyrin IX) polymerization into hemozoin
  • Plasmodial ribosomes
  • Parasite glycolytic enzymes

Correct Answer: Heme (ferriprotoporphyrin IX) polymerization into hemozoin

Q3. For 4‑aminoquinolines, the alkyl side chain linking the quinoline ring to the tertiary amine is typically optimal at what length?

  • One carbon
  • Three carbons
  • Six carbons
  • No linker is optimal

Correct Answer: Three carbons

Q4. Protonation of the basic side chain in quinoline antimalarials enhances accumulation in the parasite by:

  • Increasing passive diffusion across membranes
  • Facilitating active transport through parasite channels
  • Ion trapping in the acidic digestive vacuole
  • Cleaving the drug into active metabolites

Correct Answer: Ion trapping in the acidic digestive vacuole

Q5. The 7‑chloro substituent in chloroquine primarily contributes to:

  • Increased solubility in plasma
  • Binding affinity to heme and increased potency
  • Conversion to active metabolites
  • Decreased oral absorption

Correct Answer: Binding affinity to heme and increased potency

Q6. Which quinoline class is most associated with activity against hypnozoites in the liver and risk of hemolysis in G6PD‑deficient patients?

  • 4‑aminoquinolines (e.g., chloroquine)
  • 8‑aminoquinolines (e.g., primaquine)
  • Quinoline methanols (e.g., mefloquine)
  • Bisquinolines (e.g., piperaquine)

Correct Answer: 8‑aminoquinolines (e.g., primaquine)

Q7. Chloroquine resistance in Plasmodium falciparum is most commonly linked to mutations in which protein?

  • PfDHFR
  • PfCRT (chloroquine resistance transporter)
  • PfATPase6
  • PfLDH

Correct Answer: PfCRT (chloroquine resistance transporter)

Q8. Which SAR modification has been used to overcome chloroquine resistance by reducing efflux?

  • Removing the 4‑amino group
  • Adding bulky substituents to the side chain or ring (e.g., bisquinolines)
  • Converting the quinoline to a benzene ring
  • Decreasing basicity below pKa 5

Correct Answer: Adding bulky substituents to the side chain or ring (e.g., bisquinolines)

Q9. Mefloquine differs from 4‑aminoquinolines by having which key SAR characteristic?

  • A methanol group attached to a quinoline methanol scaffold and bulky aromatic substituents
  • An 8‑amino substituent essential for liver activity
  • A 4‑amino group with a three‑carbon chain identical to chloroquine
  • Two quinoline rings directly fused

Correct Answer: A methanol group attached to a quinoline methanol scaffold and bulky aromatic substituents

Q10. Increased lipophilicity in quinoline analogs commonly leads to:

  • Reduced vacuolar accumulation and lower potency
  • Greater membrane permeation, higher volume of distribution, and potential toxicity
  • Complete resistance reversal
  • Inactivation by digestive proteases

Correct Answer: Greater membrane permeation, higher volume of distribution, and potential toxicity

Q11. The quinoline pharmacophore essential for heme binding typically includes:

  • A carboxylic acid at position 3
  • An aromatic quinoline ring and a basic side chain enabling pi‑stacking and ionic interactions
  • A peptide linker to target proteins
  • A sugar moiety to enhance solubility

Correct Answer: An aromatic quinoline ring and a basic side chain enabling pi‑stacking and ionic interactions

Q12. Which metabolic pathway commonly deactivates tertiary‑amine quinolines and can influence SAR considerations?

  • N‑dealkylation by hepatic cytochromes
  • Glucuronidation at the quinoline ring preventing membrane crossing
  • Reduction of the aromatic ring by gut flora
  • Direct cleavage of the 4‑amino bond by esterases

Correct Answer: N‑dealkylation by hepatic cytochromes

Q13. Which structural change would most likely decrease accumulation in the acidic digestive vacuole?

  • Raising the basic side‑chain pKa so it is protonated at physiological pH
  • Lowering basicity so the amine remains unprotonated in acidic pH
  • Adding a 7‑chloro substituent
  • Extending the alkyl linker to three carbons

Correct Answer: Lowering basicity so the amine remains unprotonated in acidic pH

Q14. Bisquinolines like piperaquine achieve prolonged action mainly due to:

  • Rapid renal clearance
  • High molecular weight with increased lipophilicity and long half‑life
  • High water solubility
  • Absence of basic side chains

Correct Answer: High molecular weight with increased lipophilicity and long half‑life

Q15. Halofantrine’s cardiotoxicity (QT prolongation) alerted SAR efforts to avoid:

  • Incorporation of bulky lipophilic aromatic frameworks that block hERG channels
  • Use of any halogen in the molecule
  • Any tertiary amine in the side chain
  • Use of 4‑aminoquinoline core exclusively

Correct Answer: Incorporation of bulky lipophilic aromatic frameworks that block hERG channels

Q16. Primaquine’s metabolic activation and associated hemolysis risk are strongly influenced by which enzyme?

  • CYP2D6
  • CYP1A2
  • Monoamine oxidase
  • Alcohol dehydrogenase

Correct Answer: CYP2D6

Q17. Electron‑withdrawing substituents on the quinoline ring typically cause what SAR effect?

  • Increase basicity of the side chain
  • Lower ring electron density, potentially modifying pKa and heme affinity
  • Convert the drug to a prodrug
  • Eliminate antimalarial activity entirely

Correct Answer: Lower ring electron density, potentially modifying pKa and heme affinity

Q18. Which modification is most likely to improve selectivity for parasite heme over host targets?

  • Decreasing lipophilicity to prevent cell penetration
  • Optimizing side‑chain basicity to favor accumulation in acidic parasite vacuole
  • Adding bulky polar groups to block heme binding
  • Removing the aromatic quinoline system

Correct Answer: Optimizing side‑chain basicity to favor accumulation in acidic parasite vacuole

Q19. Stereochemistry is important in some quinoline analogs because:

  • Only achiral drugs can bind heme
  • Different enantiomers can have distinct efficacy and neuropsychiatric toxicity (e.g., mefloquine)
  • Chirality prevents drug absorption entirely
  • It only affects taste, not pharmacology

Correct Answer: Different enantiomers can have distinct efficacy and neuropsychiatric toxicity (e.g., mefloquine)

Q20. The reason chloroquine accumulates more in parasite food vacuoles than in host cytosol is best explained by:

  • Active transport by parasite pumps selective for chloroquine
  • pH difference and protonation leading to ion trapping
  • Higher lipid content inside the vacuole
  • Direct covalent binding to vacuolar proteins

Correct Answer: pH difference and protonation leading to ion trapping

Q21. Which substitution on the quinoline ring increased activity in chloroquine analogs historically?

  • Introduction of a 7‑chloro group
  • Replacement of the quinoline with pyridine
  • Attachment of a bulky sugar at position 4
  • Oxidation of the 4‑amino to nitro

Correct Answer: Introduction of a 7‑chloro group

Q22. Which strategy is used in SAR to reduce risk of treatment‑emergent resistance?

  • Designing single‑target high‑potency molecules only
  • Combining drugs with different mechanisms or designing hybrid molecules
  • Eliminating basicity to prevent vacuolar accumulation
  • Using only long half‑life monotherapies

Correct Answer: Combining drugs with different mechanisms or designing hybrid molecules

Q23. A key distinction between 4‑aminoquinolines and quinoline methanols is:

  • Quinoline methanols are strictly liver schizonticides
  • 4‑Aminoquinolines act mainly by inhibiting heme polymerization, while quinoline methanols may have different resistance and toxicity profiles
  • Only quinoline methanols can be given orally
  • 4‑Aminoquinolines are always non‑basic

Correct Answer: 4‑Aminoquinolines act mainly by inhibiting heme polymerization, while quinoline methanols may have different resistance and toxicity profiles

Q24. Modification of the tertiary amine to a secondary amine in the side chain typically:

  • Increases oral bioavailability dramatically
  • Alters pKa and may reduce vacuolar accumulation and potency
  • Prevents any metabolic transformation
  • Makes the compound a liver‑only agent

Correct Answer: Alters pKa and may reduce vacuolar accumulation and potency

Q25. Which in vitro assay directly informs SAR by measuring inhibition of hemozoin formation?

  • β‑Hematin formation assay
  • MIC against E. coli
  • Serum protein binding test
  • Glucose uptake assay

Correct Answer: β‑Hematin formation assay

Q26. Which characteristic of a quinoline analog would most likely increase risk of central nervous system adverse effects?

  • Very low lipophilicity
  • High lipophilicity enabling blood–brain barrier penetration
  • Complete ionization at physiological pH preventing CNS entry
  • Presence of a charged sugar moiety

Correct Answer: High lipophilicity enabling blood–brain barrier penetration

Q27. In SAR, reducing basicity of the side chain to lower pKa is often avoided because it:

  • Enhances vacuolar accumulation
  • Reduces ion trapping and decreases antimalarial potency
  • Automatically improves heme binding
  • Makes the drug selective only for liver stages

Correct Answer: Reduces ion trapping and decreases antimalarial potency

Q28. Which modification is characteristic of designing a prodrug to improve oral absorption of quinoline derivatives?

  • Attaching a lipophilic promoiety that is cleaved in vivo
  • Converting tertiary amine to permanently charged quaternary ammonium
  • Adding multiple free hydroxyl groups
  • Directly linking two quinolines via a cleavable peptide bond

Correct Answer: Attaching a lipophilic promoiety that is cleaved in vivo

Q29. The development of chloroquine analogs with bulky side chains aims primarily to:

  • Reduce cost of synthesis
  • Evade efflux by mutated PfCRT and improve activity against resistant strains
  • Increase hydrophilicity for faster excretion
  • Prevent protonation in acidic compartments

Correct Answer: Evade efflux by mutated PfCRT and improve activity against resistant strains

Q30. When optimizing quinoline antimalarials, medicinal chemists often balance potency and safety by:

  • Maximizing lipophilicity regardless of toxicity
  • Tuning side‑chain basicity, lipophilicity and ring substitutions to favor vacuolar accumulation while minimizing hERG and hemolytic risk
  • Removing all halogens from the scaffold
  • Ensuring the molecule is permanently charged to avoid metabolism

Correct Answer: Tuning side‑chain basicity, lipophilicity and ring substitutions to favor vacuolar accumulation while minimizing hERG and hemolytic risk

Leave a Comment