Salient features of Protista MCQs With Answer

Introduction: Protista MCQs With Answer offer B. Pharm students a focused review of the salient features of Protista, covering protozoa, algal forms, life cycles, morphology, reproduction, clinical relevance and antiprotozoal drug targets. This concise, keyword-rich guide explains cell structure (pseudopodia, cilia, flagella, pellicle), nutrition modes, parasitism, encystment, and medically important genera such as Plasmodium, Entamoeba, Giardia and Trypanosoma. Emphasis on diagnostics, pathogenesis and pharmacological implications helps pharmacy students link basic protist biology to therapeutic strategies. Clear MCQs reinforce retention and exam readiness. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which statement best describes the general characteristics of organisms in Kingdom Protista?

  • Mostly unicellular eukaryotes with some simple multicellular forms
  • Multicellular eukaryotes with complex tissues
  • Prokaryotic organisms lacking membrane-bound organelles
  • Obligate intracellular bacteria

Correct Answer: Mostly unicellular eukaryotes with some simple multicellular forms

Q2. Which locomotory organelle is primarily used by Amoeba for movement?

  • Cilia
  • Flagella
  • Pseudopodia
  • Gliding

Correct Answer: Pseudopodia

Q3. The contractile vacuole in many freshwater protists functions mainly for:

  • Digesting food particles
  • Osmoregulation and expelling excess water
  • Protein synthesis
  • Attachment to host tissues

Correct Answer: Osmoregulation and expelling excess water

Q4. Which protist is the causative agent of malaria?

  • Trypanosoma brucei
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Plasmodium spp.
  • Giardia lamblia

Correct Answer: Plasmodium spp.

Q5. Which mode of nutrition is commonly seen in algal protists?

  • Photoautotrophy
  • Obligate parasitism
  • Chemoautotrophy
  • Predation only

Correct Answer: Photoautotrophy

Q6. Encystment in protozoa primarily aids in:

  • Enhanced motility
  • Transmission and survival in harsh conditions
  • Sexual reproduction
  • Photosynthesis

Correct Answer: Transmission and survival in harsh conditions

Q7. Which organelle is characteristic of ciliates like Paramecium?

  • Pellicle
  • Contractile vacuole only
  • Cilia covering the cell surface
  • Chloroplasts

Correct Answer: Cilia covering the cell surface

Q8. Antigenic variation is a survival mechanism prominently used by which protist?

  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Trypanosoma brucei
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Plasmodium vivax

Correct Answer: Trypanosoma brucei

Q9. Which pigment is commonly found in green algal protists?

  • Phycobilins
  • Chlorophyll a and b
  • Fucoxanthin
  • Carotenoids only

Correct Answer: Chlorophyll a and b

Q10. Conjugation as a form of genetic exchange is characteristic of which group?

  • Flagellates like Giardia
  • Ciliates like Paramecium
  • Amoeboid protists
  • Diatoms

Correct Answer: Ciliates like Paramecium

Q11. The term ‘trophozoite’ refers to:

  • The dormant cyst stage
  • The motile, feeding stage of protozoa
  • Sexual spore stage
  • Resting algal spore

Correct Answer: The motile, feeding stage of protozoa

Q12. Which protist causes amoebic dysentery?

  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Trichomonas vaginalis
  • Leishmania donovani

Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

Q13. Which drug is commonly used to treat giardiasis?

  • Chloroquine
  • Metronidazole
  • Pyrimethamine
  • Artemisinin

Correct Answer: Metronidazole

Q14. Which protist group is notable for silica cell walls and is important in aquatic ecosystems?

  • Diatoms
  • Dinoflagellates
  • Green algae
  • Slime molds

Correct Answer: Diatoms

Q15. Which transmission route is typical for Giardia lamblia infection?

  • Vector-borne via mosquito
  • Contaminated water and fecal-oral route
  • Airborne droplets
  • Sexual contact only

Correct Answer: Contaminated water and fecal-oral route

Q16. Which genus includes flagellated protozoa that cause African sleeping sickness?

  • Plasmodium
  • Trypanosoma
  • Entamoeba
  • Giardia

Correct Answer: Trypanosoma

Q17. The apical complex is a distinctive ultrastructural feature of which protozoan phylum?

  • Sporozoa (Apicomplexa)

Correct Answer: Sporozoa (Apicomplexa)

Q18. Which stage of Plasmodium development occurs in the human liver?

  • Gametocyte
  • Merozoite only in RBCs
  • Sporozoite to hepatic schizont stage
  • Ookinete

Correct Answer: Sporozoite to hepatic schizont stage

Q19. Which feature differentiates protozoa from bacteria?

  • Presence of membrane-bound organelles and nucleus
  • Smaller cell size
  • Lack of DNA
  • Absence of metabolism

Correct Answer: Presence of membrane-bound organelles and nucleus

Q20. Dinoflagellate blooms that produce toxins causing shellfish poisoning are commonly called:

  • Diatomaceous blooms
  • Red tides
  • Green tides
  • Whitewater events

Correct Answer: Red tides

Q21. Which protozoan causes visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)?

  • Leishmania donovani
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Trichomonas vaginalis

Correct Answer: Leishmania donovani

Q22. Which structure in Plasmodium is responsible for invading red blood cells?

  • Gametocyte
  • Merozoite
  • Trophozoite vacuole
  • Ookinete

Correct Answer: Merozoite

Q23. Which laboratory staining technique is commonly used to detect malaria parasites in blood smears?

  • Ziehl-Neelsen stain
  • Giemsa stain
  • Gram stain
  • India ink

Correct Answer: Giemsa stain

Q24. Which antimalarial acts on heme detoxification in Plasmodium?

  • Metronidazole
  • Chloroquine
  • Suramin
  • Pentamidine

Correct Answer: Chloroquine

Q25. Which protist group is known for cellulose plates and two flagella causing red tides and bioluminescence?

  • Dinoflagellates
  • Diatoms
  • Green algae
  • Foraminifera

Correct Answer: Dinoflagellates

Q26. Which organelle often replaces mitochondria in anaerobic flagellates like Giardia?

  • Hydrogenosomes and mitosomes (reduced mitochondria)
  • Chloroplasts
  • Peroxisomes only
  • Complex Golgi-derived plastids

Correct Answer: Hydrogenosomes and mitosomes (reduced mitochondria)

Q27. Trypanosoma cruzi is primarily transmitted by which vector?

  • Tsetse fly
  • Kissing bug (Triatomine)
  • Flea
  • Sandfly

Correct Answer: Kissing bug (Triatomine)

Q28. Which protist reproductive process involves binary fission?

  • Sexual fusion of gametes
  • Vegetative asexual reproduction common in protozoa like Amoeba
  • Sporulation via meiosis only
  • Conjugation only

Correct Answer: Vegetative asexual reproduction common in protozoa like Amoeba

Q29. The term ‘pellicle’ in protists refers to:

  • A rigid mineral shell only
  • A flexible proteinaceous layer beneath the plasma membrane providing shape
  • A type of food vacuole
  • Flagellar root structure

Correct Answer: A flexible proteinaceous layer beneath the plasma membrane providing shape

Q30. Which diagnostic form of Entamoeba histolytica is typically found in stool and is infective?

  • Trophozoite stage exclusively
  • Cyst stage
  • Gametocyte stage
  • Merozoite

Correct Answer: Cyst stage

Q31. Which antiprotozoal drug is derived from the plant Artemisia annua and used against malaria?

  • Quinine
  • Pyrimethamine
  • Artemisinin
  • Metronidazole

Correct Answer: Artemisinin

Q32. Which group of protists includes organisms important in wastewater treatment and as bioindicators?

  • Parasitic apicomplexans only
  • Ciliates and flagellates in microbial communities
  • Obligate anaerobic flagellates only
  • Slime molds only

Correct Answer: Ciliates and flagellates in microbial communities

Q33. Which life cycle feature is characteristic of Plasmodium vivax relapse in humans?

  • Hypnozoites—dormant liver stages causing relapse
  • Persistent cysts in the intestine
  • Encysted trophozoites in RBCs
  • Free-living trophozoites in blood plasma

Correct Answer: Hypnozoites—dormant liver stages causing relapse

Q34. Which protist-derived products have pharmaceutical significance?

  • Only toxins with no medicinal use
  • Algal-derived polysaccharides, pigments and bioactive compounds
  • Only vaccine antigens from ciliates
  • No protist products are pharmaceutically relevant

Correct Answer: Algal-derived polysaccharides, pigments and bioactive compounds

Q35. For diagnosing intestinal protozoa, which technique improves detection of cysts in stool?

  • Wet mount without concentration
  • Concentration techniques (formal-ether sedimentation) and staining
  • Gram staining of stool
  • Culture on nutrient agar

Correct Answer: Concentration techniques (formal-ether sedimentation) and staining

Q36. Which protist causes sexually transmitted infection that can lead to vaginitis?

  • Trichomonas vaginalis
  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Entamoeba histolytica

Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

Q37. The primary reservoir host for Leishmania species causing visceral leishmaniasis is often:

  • Humans only
  • Rodents, dogs and other mammals
  • Freshwater snails
  • Birds exclusively

Correct Answer: Rodents, dogs and other mammals

Q38. Which cellular structure enables Paramecium to regulate water balance?

  • Food vacuole
  • Contractile vacuole
  • Pellicle
  • Trichocyst

Correct Answer: Contractile vacuole

Q39. Which assay or method is used in the laboratory to culture some free-living protists for study?

  • Nutrient agar plate for all protists
  • Axenic liquid culture media and xenic cultures with bacteria or tissue culture
  • Standard blood culture bottles only
  • Anaerobic jar for all protists

Correct Answer: Axenic liquid culture media and xenic cultures with bacteria or tissue culture

Q40. Which feature distinguishes Apicomplexa from other protists?

  • Presence of flagella for motility in all stages
  • Apical complex used for host cell invasion
  • Photosynthetic chloroplasts in all species
  • External shell made of silica

Correct Answer: Apical complex used for host cell invasion

Q41. Suramin and pentamidine are drugs used to treat which protozoal disease?

  • Giardiasis
  • Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
  • Malaria caused by Plasmodium
  • Amoebiasis

Correct Answer: Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)

Q42. Which structure is typical of photosynthetic protists derived from secondary endosymbiosis?

  • Chloroplasts with four membranes
  • Chloroplasts with a single membrane
  • Absent chloroplasts always
  • Cellulose cell wall only

Correct Answer: Chloroplasts with four membranes

Q43. Which protozoan infection is most commonly associated with contaminated drinking water and causes diarrhea?

  • Trichomoniasis
  • Giardiasis
  • Sleeping sickness
  • Leishmaniasis

Correct Answer: Giardiasis

Q44. Which morphological form of Plasmodium circulates in human blood and causes clinical symptoms?

  • Oocyst
  • Merozoite and trophozoite stages within RBCs
  • Sporozoite in mosquito midgut only
  • Ookinete in human liver

Correct Answer: Merozoite and trophozoite stages within RBCs

Q45. Which biological concept explains origin of plastids in many protists via engulfment of a photosynthetic eukaryote?

  • Binary fission
  • Primary and secondary endosymbiosis
  • Conjugation
  • Transformation

Correct Answer: Primary and secondary endosymbiosis

Q46. Which environmental role do many protists play that is essential for global carbon cycling?

  • Decomposition of cellulose only
  • Primary production and carbon fixation in aquatic ecosystems
  • Exclusive parasitism with no ecological benefit
  • Formation of mineral deposits only

Correct Answer: Primary production and carbon fixation in aquatic ecosystems

Q47. In protist taxonomy, which molecular marker is most widely used for phylogenetic studies?

  • 18S rRNA gene
  • Cytochrome c oxidase I only
  • 16S rRNA gene (prokaryotic marker)
  • Hemoglobin gene

Correct Answer: 18S rRNA gene

Q48. Which diagnostic indicator is typical of severe Plasmodium falciparum infection?

  • Low parasitemia only
  • High parasitemia with cerebral symptoms and sequestration of infected RBCs
  • Chronic watery diarrhea
  • Cutaneous ulcers exclusively

Correct Answer: High parasitemia with cerebral symptoms and sequestration of infected RBCs

Q49. Which adaptation helps parasitic protists evade host immune responses?

  • Stable cell-surface antigens with no variation
  • Antigenic variation and intracellular hiding within host cells
  • Complete loss of membrane proteins
  • Restricted metabolism preventing replication

Correct Answer: Antigenic variation and intracellular hiding within host cells

Q50. For B. Pharm students, why is understanding Protista important in pharmacy practice?

  • Only for academic curiosity with no clinical application
  • To connect pathogen biology with diagnosis, drug targets, antiprotozoal therapy and drug development
  • Because protists are identical to bacteria in treatment
  • Protists are irrelevant to drug resistance studies

Correct Answer: To connect pathogen biology with diagnosis, drug targets, antiprotozoal therapy and drug development

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