Reticuloendothelial system MCQs With Answer

The reticuloendothelial system (RES), now largely termed the mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS), comprises macrophages and related phagocytic cells in organs such as liver (Kupffer cells), spleen, lymph nodes and bone marrow. For B. Pharm students, understanding RES structure, cellular markers (CD68), phagocytosis mechanisms, opsonization, antigen presentation, cytokine-mediated activation (IFN-γ, M-CSF), and pharmacological implications like nanoparticle and liposomal drug clearance is essential for rational drug design and immunopharmacology. This topic links immunology with pharmacokinetics, clinical pathology and drug delivery strategies. You will be tested on receptors (Fc, complement, scavenger), intracellular killing pathways (NADPH oxidase, phagolysosome), clinical conditions (splenectomy, hemophagocytic syndromes) and drug delivery challenges related to RES uptake. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What alternative term is commonly used instead of the historical name “reticuloendothelial system”?

  • Complement system
  • Neutrophil network
  • Mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)
  • Adaptive immune system

Correct Answer: Mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)

Q2. Which cell type forms the core functional unit of the RES/MPS?

  • B lymphocytes
  • Macrophages (e.g., Kupffer, splenic, alveolar)
  • Endothelial cells
  • Platelets

Correct Answer: Macrophages (e.g., Kupffer, splenic, alveolar)

Q3. Kupffer cells, key RES components, are located primarily in which anatomical site?

  • Bile canaliculi
  • Hepatic sinusoids (sinusoidal lining)
  • Portal triad
  • Centrilobular vein

Correct Answer: Hepatic sinusoids (sinusoidal lining)

Q4. A major physiological function of the RES is:

  • Secretion of digestive enzymes
  • Phagocytosis and clearance of pathogens, senescent cells and particles
  • Production of red blood cells
  • Hormone synthesis

Correct Answer: Phagocytosis and clearance of pathogens, senescent cells and particles

Q5. Which immunohistochemical marker is most commonly used to identify tissue macrophages in histology?

  • CD3
  • CD20
  • CD68
  • CD31

Correct Answer: CD68

Q6. Which molecule is recognized classically by Fc receptors on macrophages to promote opsonic phagocytosis?

  • C3a
  • IgM
  • IgG
  • Albumin

Correct Answer: IgG

Q7. The enzyme complex responsible for the respiratory (oxidative) burst in phagocytes is:

  • Myeloperoxidase only
  • NADPH oxidase complex
  • Cyclooxygenase
  • DNA polymerase

Correct Answer: NADPH oxidase complex

Q8. Fusion of a phagosome with a lysosome yields which compartment for microbial killing?

  • Autophagosome
  • Phagolysosome
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • Golgi vesicle

Correct Answer: Phagolysosome

Q9. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is primarily due to a defect in which pathway related to RES function?

  • Antigen presentation via MHC II
  • NADPH oxidase–mediated respiratory burst
  • Lysosomal acid hydrolases
  • Fc receptor expression

Correct Answer: NADPH oxidase–mediated respiratory burst

Q10. How do macrophages primarily present processed antigens to CD4+ T lymphocytes?

  • On MHC class I molecules
  • Secreted peptide fragments
  • On MHC class II molecules
  • Via toll-like receptors

Correct Answer: On MHC class II molecules

Q11. Tissue macrophages are derived from which circulating precursor?

  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Monocytes
  • Lymphocytes

Correct Answer: Monocytes

Q12. Which receptor family on macrophages recognizes oxidized low-density lipoprotein and apoptotic cells?

  • T cell receptor
  • Scavenger receptors
  • B cell receptor
  • Insulin receptor

Correct Answer: Scavenger receptors

Q13. A common pharmacological consequence of RES uptake of liposomal drugs is:

  • Prolonged systemic half-life in all cases
  • Rapid clearance into liver and spleen, reducing circulation time
  • Complete renal elimination
  • Enhanced blood–brain barrier penetration

Correct Answer: Rapid clearance into liver and spleen, reducing circulation time

Q14. Which surface modification is most effective to reduce RES recognition and prolong nanoparticle circulation?

  • Cholesterol coating
  • PEGylation (polyethylene glycol)
  • Conjugation with albumin
  • Increasing particle charge

Correct Answer: PEGylation (polyethylene glycol)

Q15. Which cytokine is a key activator of classical (M1) macrophage activation?

  • IL-10
  • IL-4
  • Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)
  • Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β)

Correct Answer: Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)

Q16. The M2 macrophage phenotype is most associated with which function?

  • Pro-inflammatory microbicidal activity
  • Tissue repair and anti-inflammatory responses
  • Immediate hypersensitivity reactions
  • Antibody production

Correct Answer: Tissue repair and anti-inflammatory responses

Q17. Which organ is the primary blood filter and a central RES site for removing opsonized particles?

  • Kidney
  • Spleen
  • Thyroid
  • Adrenal gland

Correct Answer: Spleen

Q18. In the spleen, which macrophage population is primarily involved in the phagocytosis of senescent red blood cells?

  • Marginal zone B cells
  • White pulp dendritic cells
  • Red pulp macrophages
  • Endothelial sinus cells

Correct Answer: Red pulp macrophages

Q19. Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) is characterized by excessive activation of which cells?

  • Neutrophils causing tissue ischemia
  • Macrophages (histiocytes) causing hemophagocytosis
  • Erythrocytes producing cytokines
  • B cells producing autoantibodies

Correct Answer: Macrophages (histiocytes) causing hemophagocytosis

Q20. Complement receptor CR1 (CD35) on phagocytes primarily binds which complement fragment?

  • C5a
  • C3b
  • C4a
  • C9

Correct Answer: C3b

Q21. The process by which macrophages remove aged erythrocytes is called:

  • Autolysis
  • Erythrophagocytosis
  • Hemolysis by complement
  • Apoptosis

Correct Answer: Erythrophagocytosis

Q22. Patients who have undergone splenectomy are at increased risk of severe infection by:

  • Gram-negative anaerobes only
  • Encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Fungal molds exclusively
  • Non-enveloped viruses

Correct Answer: Encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae

Q23. Which receptor on macrophages recognizes the Fc portion of IgG antibodies to mediate antibody-dependent phagocytosis?

  • Fcε receptor
  • Fcγ receptor (Fc gamma receptor)
  • Complement receptor CR3 only
  • Toll-like receptor 4

Correct Answer: Fcγ receptor (Fc gamma receptor)

Q24. A key role of RES macrophages in iron metabolism is to:

  • Excrete iron into bile
  • Store and recycle iron from senescent erythrocytes
  • Synthesize transferrin in plasma
  • Convert iron to hemoglobin

Correct Answer: Store and recycle iron from senescent erythrocytes

Q25. Which laboratory technique is most specific for identifying macrophages in tissue sections?

  • Gram stain
  • CD68 immunohistochemistry
  • Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stain
  • Prussian blue only

Correct Answer: CD68 immunohistochemistry

Q26. The predominant organs responsible for clearance of colloidal particles and many nanoparticles are:

  • Lungs and brain
  • Liver (Kupffer cells) and spleen
  • Bone marrow exclusively
  • Kidneys and urinary tract

Correct Answer: Liver (Kupffer cells) and spleen

Q27. Which co-stimulatory molecules expressed by activated macrophages are critical for naive T-cell activation?

  • CD3 and CD28
  • CD80/CD86 (B7 family)
  • CD19 and CD21
  • MHC class I only

Correct Answer: CD80/CD86 (B7 family)

Q28. The classical complement pathway, which enhances opsonization for RES clearance, is initiated by:

  • Spontaneous hydrolysis of C3 only
  • Antigen–antibody complexes (IgM or IgG)
  • Lipopolysaccharide binding to mannose-binding lectin
  • Direct C9 activation

Correct Answer: Antigen–antibody complexes (IgM or IgG)

Q29. Which class of enzymes within lysosomes is primarily responsible for degrading internalized microbes?

  • Lysosomal acid hydrolases and proteases
  • DNA topoisomerases
  • RNA polymerases
  • Fatty acid synthases

Correct Answer: Lysosomal acid hydrolases and proteases

Q30. Which growth factor is most important for the proliferation and differentiation of macrophage lineage cells?

  • Erythropoietin (EPO)
  • Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
  • Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF / CSF-1)
  • Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)

Correct Answer: Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF / CSF-1)

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