Resuscitation methods MCQs With Answer

Resuscitation methods MCQs With Answer is a focused resource for B. Pharm students preparing for exams and clinical practice. This introduction covers essential resuscitation methods, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), airway management, defibrillation, drug therapy, and advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) principles. Keywords such as resuscitation methods, CPR, advanced cardiac life support, airway management, external defibrillation, and B. Pharm students are integrated to boost search relevance. The content emphasizes practical, pharmacology-linked scenarios and evidence-based protocols to deepen understanding. Concise explanations and clinical drug considerations make it ideal for pharmacy curricula and exam prep. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is the first step in the adult chain of survival for an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest?

• Immediate defibrillation
• Early recognition and activation of emergency response
• Advanced airway placement
• Administration of epinephrine

Correct Answer: Early recognition and activation of emergency response

Q2. During high-quality adult CPR, the recommended chest compression rate is:

• 60–80 compressions per minute
• 80–100 compressions per minute
• 100–120 compressions per minute
• 120–140 compressions per minute

Correct Answer: 100–120 compressions per minute

Q3. The recommended chest compression depth for an adult is approximately:

• 1 inch (2.5 cm)
• 1.5 inches (4 cm)
• 2 inches (5 cm)
• 3 inches (7.5 cm)

Correct Answer: 2 inches (5 cm)

Q4. For a single rescuer performing CPR on an adult, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is:

• 15:2
• 30:2
• 5:1
• 10:2

Correct Answer: 30:2

Q5. Which medication is first-line IV/IO during cardiac arrest for ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia after defibrillation attempts?

• Atropine
• Adenosine
• Epinephrine
• Amiodarone

Correct Answer: Epinephrine

Q6. The standard adult dose of epinephrine for cardiac arrest administered IV/IO is:

• 0.01 mg/kg
• 0.1 mg/kg
• 1 mg every 3–5 minutes
• 10 mg bolus once

Correct Answer: 1 mg every 3–5 minutes

Q7. Which of the following is the recommended initial energy for biphasic defibrillation in adult VF/pulseless VT (per many protocols)?

• 50 J
• 120–200 J
• 360 J fixed dose
• 10 J/kg

Correct Answer: 120–200 J

Q8. During resuscitation, airway adjuncts such as oropharyngeal airways are indicated when the patient:

• Has a gag reflex intact
• Is unconscious with no gag reflex
• Is fully conscious and talking
• Has an upper airway obstruction due to foreign body

Correct Answer: Is unconscious with no gag reflex

Q9. For infants (under 1 year), the recommended compression to ventilation ratio for two rescuers is:

• 30:2
• 15:2
• 3:1
• 5:1

Correct Answer: 15:2

Q10. Which monitoring parameter is most useful to confirm effective chest compressions and ROSC during advanced resuscitation?

• Pulse oximetry reading
• End-tidal CO2 (capnography)
• Noninvasive blood pressure
• Central venous pressure

Correct Answer: End-tidal CO2 (capnography)

Q11. The “H’s and T’s” represent reversible causes of cardiac arrest. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

• Hypovolemia
• Tension pneumothorax
• Hyperglycemia
• Tamponade (cardiac)

Correct Answer: Hyperglycemia

Q12. In opioid overdose causing respiratory arrest, the immediate reversal agent is:

• Naloxone
• Flumazenil
• Atropine
• Fomepizole

Correct Answer: Naloxone

Q13. Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which CPR supports perfusion?

• Direct oxygenation of tissues
• Creating forward blood flow by chest compressions
• Eliminating metabolic waste products
• Restoring neurological function immediately

Correct Answer: Creating forward blood flow by chest compressions

Q14. For a witnessed sudden collapse with an AED available, what is the most appropriate immediate action?

• Perform 5 cycles of CPR before using AED
• Turn on the AED and follow prompts, deliver shock if advised
• Wait for advanced life support team
• Start mouth-to-mouth ventilation first

Correct Answer: Turn on the AED and follow prompts, deliver shock if advised

Q15. In pediatric advanced life support, what is an important difference from adult protocols?

• Compression depth is the same as adults
• Defibrillation energy is standardized at 360 J for all ages
• Drug dosages are often weight-based and different
• No need for airway management in children

Correct Answer: Drug dosages are often weight-based and different

Q16. Which antiarrhythmic is commonly recommended after repeated defibrillation attempts for refractory VF/pulseless VT?

• Procainamide
• Lidocaine
• Amiodarone
• Sotalol

Correct Answer: Amiodarone

Q17. The recommended immediate action for a conscious adult with severe airway obstruction who cannot cough is:

• Perform back blows and abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)
• Perform blind finger sweep
• Administer naloxone
• Begin full CPR immediately

Correct Answer: Perform back blows and abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)

Q18. In the context of resuscitation, therapeutic hypothermia (targeted temperature management) is primarily used to:

• Increase metabolic rate
• Improve neurological outcomes after ROSC
• Enhance defibrillation efficacy
• Accelerate drug metabolism

Correct Answer: Improve neurological outcomes after ROSC

Q19. During CPR, minimizing interruptions in chest compressions is important because interruptions:

• Improve ventilation quality
• Increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure
• Reduce overall perfusion to heart and brain
• Allow drugs to circulate better

Correct Answer: Reduce overall perfusion to heart and brain

Q20. For pregnant patients in cardiac arrest, which modification is recommended to improve venous return?

• Perform CPR with the patient supine and legs elevated
• Apply manual left uterine displacement or tilt the patient to the left
• Avoid chest compressions and focus on ventilation
• Use lower compression depth

Correct Answer: Apply manual left uterine displacement or tilt the patient to the left

Q21. Which statement about AED use is TRUE?

• AEDs can analyze rhythm even while chest compressions continue without pausing
• AED pads must be placed at least 10 cm apart
• AED will advise a shock only for shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT
• AED use is contraindicated in children under 12 years

Correct Answer: AED will advise a shock only for shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT

Q22. Which of the following is a contraindication to giving high-flow oxygen during resuscitation?

• Suspected carbon monoxide poisoning
• Asymptomatic bradycardia
• There are no absolute contraindications during cardiac arrest
• History of COPD

Correct Answer: There are no absolute contraindications during cardiac arrest

Q23. In ACLS, synchronized cardioversion is indicated for:

• Asystole
• Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
• Unstable supraventricular tachycardia with a pulse
• Ventricular fibrillation

Correct Answer: Unstable supraventricular tachycardia with a pulse

Q24. Which medication is indicated for symptomatic bradycardia as a first-line agent?

• Adenosine
• Atropine
• Epinephrine infusion only
• Amiodarone

Correct Answer: Atropine

Q25. When intubation is performed during resuscitation, what is the main advantage compared to bag-mask ventilation?

• It guarantees better chest compressions
• It secures the airway and protects from aspiration allowing uninterrupted chest compressions
• It eliminates need for oxygen
• It is faster and easier in a chaotic scene

Correct Answer: It secures the airway and protects from aspiration allowing uninterrupted chest compressions

Q26. In neonatal resuscitation, the initial steps include warming, clearing the airway, drying, and:

• Immediate intubation for all neonates
• Assessing heart rate and breathing
• Administering epinephrine to all neonates
• Giving 100% oxygen routinely

Correct Answer: Assessing heart rate and breathing

Q27. The presence of agonal gasps in an unresponsive person indicates:

• Normal breathing and no action needed
• Possible cardiac arrest requiring immediate CPR
• Only a need for suctioning of secretions
• Excessive oxygenation

Correct Answer: Possible cardiac arrest requiring immediate CPR

Q28. For torsades de pointes causing ventricular tachycardia, which immediate therapy is indicated?

• IV magnesium sulfate
• IV calcium chloride
• IV beta blockers
• Oral amiodarone

Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulfate

Q29. During resuscitation, what is the recommended action if an advanced airway (endotracheal tube) is in place?

• Return to a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio
• Provide continuous chest compressions with asynchronous ventilations at 10 breaths per minute
• Pause compressions for each ventilation
• Cease oxygen administration

Correct Answer: Provide continuous chest compressions with asynchronous ventilations at 10 breaths per minute

Q30. Which of the following best describes pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?

• Organized electrical activity without a palpable pulse
• No electrical activity on the monitor
• Rapid disorganized electrical activity
• Pulses present with normal blood pressure

Correct Answer: Organized electrical activity without a palpable pulse

Q31. For reversible hypovolemia causing arrest, the immediate priority is:

• High-dose epinephrine
• Rapid volume replacement and control of the source
• Immediate defibrillation
• External pacing

Correct Answer: Rapid volume replacement and control of the source

Q32. What is the primary pharmacologic action of epinephrine that benefits cardiac arrest resuscitation?

• Potent beta-2 vasodilation
• Alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure
• Calcium channel blockade
• Direct negative inotropic effect

Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure

Q33. After achieving return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), which step is essential for post-resuscitation care?

• Immediate cessation of monitoring
• Optimize ventilation and oxygenation, hemodynamic support, and targeted temperature management as indicated
• Discontinue all vasoactive drugs
• Avoid any neurological assessment for 72 hours

Correct Answer: Optimize ventilation and oxygenation, hemodynamic support, and targeted temperature management as indicated

Q34. Which drug is recommended for unstable narrow-complex SVT to attempt termination of the arrhythmia in ACLS?

• Adenosine rapid IV bolus
• Nitroglycerin sublingual
• Lidocaine bolus
• Oral beta-blocker

Correct Answer: Adenosine rapid IV bolus

Q35. Which is the correct pediatric defibrillation dose per kg for the first shock when manual defibrillator with pediatric settings is available?

• 0.5 J/kg
• 1 J/kg
• 2 J/kg
• 10 J/kg

Correct Answer: 2 J/kg

Q36. What is the recommended action if an unwitnessed cardiac arrest is discovered and you are alone?

• Start CPR immediately and do not call emergency services
• Shout for help and leave to activate emergency response/AED if alone and an adult collapse was unwitnessed by you
• Check pulse for 10 minutes
• Give two rescue breaths before chest compressions

Correct Answer: Shout for help and leave to activate emergency response/AED if alone and an adult collapse was unwitnessed by you

Q37. Which electrolyte disturbance is classically associated with Torsades de Pointes and can precipitate cardiac arrest?

• Hypernatremia
• Hypomagnesemia
• Hyperkalemia
• Hypocalcemia

Correct Answer: Hypomagnesemia

Q38. In trauma victims with cardiac arrest, which immediate consideration may alter standard chest compression technique?

• Always compress at deeper depth
• Consider chest compressions despite major chest trauma without modifications
• Be cautious of potential chest injury but continue compressions; prioritize hemorrhage control and reversible causes
• Do not perform CPR in any trauma patient

Correct Answer: Be cautious of potential chest injury but continue compressions; prioritize hemorrhage control and reversible causes

Q39. If a patient has asystole on the monitor during arrest, the recommended immediate step is:

• Immediate shock by defibrillator
• Begin CPR and give epinephrine; search for reversible causes
• Administer amiodarone
• Start synchronized cardioversion

Correct Answer: Begin CPR and give epinephrine; search for reversible causes

Q40. Which statement about bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation is TRUE?

• BVM always provides adequate ventilation without training
• A proper mask seal and two-person technique improve ventilation effectiveness
• BVM should not be used in cardiac arrest
• BVM eliminates need for chest compressions

Correct Answer: A proper mask seal and two-person technique improve ventilation effectiveness

Q41. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated during Torsades de Pointes because it may prolong the QT interval?

• Magnesium sulfate
• Class IA and III antiarrhythmics such as procainamide or sotalol
• Beta blockers
• Calcium chloride

Correct Answer: Class IA and III antiarrhythmics such as procainamide or sotalol

Q42. Which of the following best describes ventricular fibrillation (VF)?

• Organized rapid rhythm with pulse
• Chaotic electrical activity with no effective ventricular contraction
• Slow escape rhythm with bradycardia
• Regular wide-complex tachycardia with pulse

Correct Answer: Chaotic electrical activity with no effective ventricular contraction

Q43. During an in-hospital cardiac arrest team response, what is the role of a pharmacist or B.Pharm-trained professional?

• Only observe and do not participate
• Prepare, verify, and deliver emergency medications and advise on dosing and compatibility
• Perform chest compressions exclusively
• Operate defibrillator equipment

Correct Answer: Prepare, verify, and deliver emergency medications and advise on dosing and compatibility

Q44. Which is the most appropriate immediate action for a pediatric patient with rapid progression to respiratory failure and bradycardia?

• Initiate chest compressions only
• Focus on ventilation and oxygenation first, then chest compressions if pulse absent
• Administer amiodarone immediately
• Give naloxone empirically

Correct Answer: Focus on ventilation and oxygenation first, then chest compressions if pulse absent

Q45. Regarding chest compression fraction (the percentage of time compressions are performed during resuscitation), higher values are associated with:

• Worse survival outcomes
• No change in outcomes
• Improved survival and better perfusion
• Increased incidence of rib fractures only

Correct Answer: Improved survival and better perfusion

Q46. Which of the following is TRUE about end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) during CPR?

• Consistently low ETCO2 (>40 mmHg) indicates effective compressions
• Sudden increase in ETCO2 may indicate ROSC
• ETCO2 monitoring is unreliable during resuscitation
• ETCO2 levels are unaffected by ventilation quality

Correct Answer: Sudden increase in ETCO2 may indicate ROSC

Q47. What dose of naloxone is commonly recommended for suspected opioid overdose in adults during resuscitation?

• 0.01 mg IV
• 0.1 mg IV
• 0.4–2 mg IV/IM, titrated
• 10 mg IV bolus routinely

Correct Answer: 0.4–2 mg IV/IM, titrated

Q48. Which situation is most likely to produce a rhythm suitable for immediate defibrillation?

• Asystole
• Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
• Ventricular fibrillation (VF)
• Bradycardia with pulse

Correct Answer: Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

Q49. For a patient with suspected anaphylactic cardiac arrest, which interventions are priorities?

• Only chest compressions and wait for help
• Intramuscular epinephrine, high-flow oxygen, airway support, and fluid resuscitation
• Administer beta blockers
• Apply ice packs and observe

Correct Answer: Intramuscular epinephrine, high-flow oxygen, airway support, and fluid resuscitation

Q50. Which statement best summarizes the role of continuous quality improvement (debriefing, training, equipment checks) in resuscitation programs?

• Quality improvement has minimal effect on outcomes
• Regular training and debriefing improve team performance, skill retention, and patient outcomes
• Only new equipment matters; training is optional
• Debriefing should be avoided to prevent blame

Correct Answer: Regular training and debriefing improve team performance, skill retention, and patient outcomes

G S Sachin

I am a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. I hold a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research. With a strong academic foundation and practical knowledge, I am committed to providing accurate, easy-to-understand content to support pharmacy students and professionals. My aim is to make complex pharmaceutical concepts accessible and useful for real-world application.

Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com