Prevention and control of malaria, chikungunya and dengue MCQs With Answer

Introduction: This concise guide on Prevention and control of malaria, chikungunya and dengue MCQs With Answer is tailored for B. Pharm students. It covers epidemiology, mosquito vectors (Anopheles, Aedes), diagnostic tools (microscopy, RDTs, NS1), pharmacologic interventions (artemisinin-based therapies, primaquine, doxycycline, atovaquone‑proguanil), vaccines, insecticide-based and non‑chemical vector control (ITNs, IRS, larval source management, Bti, Wolbachia), resistance mechanisms, surveillance, and integrated vector management. Emphasis is placed on rational drug use, pharmacovigilance, community engagement and outbreak response. Keywords: malaria, dengue, chikungunya, vector control, antimalarials, arboviruses, insecticide resistance, larvicides, diagnostics. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which mosquito genus is primarily responsible for transmitting malaria to humans?

  • Anopheles
  • Aedes
  • Culex
  • Phlebotomus

Correct Answer: Anopheles

Q2. The NS1 antigen test is most useful for early diagnosis of which disease?

  • Malaria
  • Dengue
  • Chikungunya
  • Filariasis

Correct Answer: Dengue

Q3. Which drug is the recommended first‑line treatment for uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria in most endemic regions?

  • Chloroquine
  • Oral artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
  • Primaquine monotherapy
  • Doxycycline alone

Correct Answer: Oral artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)

Q4. Which intervention specifically targets mosquito larvae in breeding sites?

  • Insecticide-treated nets (ITNs)
  • Indoor residual spraying (IRS)
  • Larviciding with Bti (Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis)
  • Space fogging

Correct Answer: Larviciding with Bti (Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis)

Q5. Aedes aegypti differs from Anopheles mosquitoes mainly because Aedes:

  • Bites primarily at night
  • Breeds in natural freshwater bodies exclusively
  • Is a daytime feeder and breeds in artificial containers
  • Transmits malaria parasites

Correct Answer: Is a daytime feeder and breeds in artificial containers

Q6. Primaquine is used in malaria control primarily to:

  • Treat severe falciparum malaria
  • Eliminate P. vivax and P. ovale hypnozoites to prevent relapse
  • Act as a rapid schizonticide for P. falciparum blood stages
  • Provide long-term prophylaxis for travelers

Correct Answer: Eliminate P. vivax and P. ovale hypnozoites to prevent relapse

Q7. Which mechanism contributes most directly to pyrethroid resistance in mosquito vectors?

  • Overexpression of acetylcholinesterase
  • kdr mutations in the voltage-gated sodium channel
  • Increased activity of RNA polymerase
  • Enhanced uptake of insecticide through spiracles

Correct Answer: kdr mutations in the voltage-gated sodium channel

Q8. The WHO recommendation for community-level dengue outbreak control emphasizes:

  • Mass administration of antibiotics
  • Larval source reduction and community mobilization
  • Universal vaccination irrespective of serostatus
  • Only indoor residual spraying

Correct Answer: Larval source reduction and community mobilization

Q9. Which laboratory method remains the gold standard for malaria diagnosis and species identification?

  • Rapid diagnostic test (RDT)
  • Microscopic examination of stained blood smears
  • NS1 antigen test
  • ELISA for dengue IgM

Correct Answer: Microscopic examination of stained blood smears

Q10. The most appropriate chemoprophylaxis for a traveler to a chloroquine-resistant malaria area is:

  • Chloroquine
  • Atovaquone‑proguanil or doxycycline or mefloquine based on tolerance
  • Primaquine alone
  • Rifampicin

Correct Answer: Atovaquone‑proguanil or doxycycline or mefloquine based on tolerance

Q11. Which vaccine is licensed for dengue but has limitations related to serostatus?

  • BCG
  • Dengvaxia (CYD-TDV)
  • RTS,S
  • Yellow fever 17D

Correct Answer: Dengvaxia (CYD-TDV)

Q12. In chikungunya infection, the primary acute management is focused on:

  • Antiviral nucleoside analogues
  • Supportive care and analgesia for severe arthralgia
  • High-dose corticosteroids routinely
  • Immediate antibiotic therapy

Correct Answer: Supportive care and analgesia for severe arthralgia

Q13. Indoor residual spraying (IRS) primarily reduces malaria transmission by:

  • Destroying larval habitats
  • Killing or repelling adult mosquitoes that rest on treated walls
  • Neutralizing parasite gametocytes in humans
  • Eliminating mosquito eggs from containers

Correct Answer: Killing or repelling adult mosquitoes that rest on treated walls

Q14. Which of the following is an effective biological control method for Aedes larvae?

  • Release of Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes to reduce vector competence
  • Administration of ivermectin to humans to kill larvae
  • Systemic insecticide treatment of plants
  • UV light traps in houses

Correct Answer: Release of Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes to reduce vector competence

Q15. Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) for malaria detect which target in many P. falciparum infections?

  • NS1 antigen
  • Histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP2)
  • Chikungunya IgG
  • Dengue viral RNA

Correct Answer: Histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP2)

Q16. Which antimalarial is contraindicated in G6PD-deficient patients due to risk of hemolysis?

  • Artemether-lumefantrine
  • Primaquine
  • Atovaquone-proguanil
  • Doxycycline

Correct Answer: Primaquine

Q17. Space spraying (fogging) during dengue outbreaks is mainly effective at:

  • Eliminating adult mosquitoes temporarily in outbreak zones
  • Permanently removing larval habitats
  • Replacing the need for community education
  • Treating human infections directly

Correct Answer: Eliminating adult mosquitoes temporarily in outbreak zones

Q18. Which pharmacovigilance concern is particularly important when deploying mass drug administration for malaria?

  • Antibiotic resistance selection
  • Monitoring adverse events and rare severe reactions
  • Promotion of herbal remedies
  • Increase in vector breeding sites

Correct Answer: Monitoring adverse events and rare severe reactions

Q19. The primary difference in biting behavior between Aedes and Anopheles affects control strategies because:

  • Aedes rest exclusively indoors making IRS always effective
  • Anopheles bite during the day so bed nets are ineffective
  • Aedes biting in daytime reduces impact of bed nets, so source reduction and daytime protection are crucial
  • Both genera have identical behaviors so one strategy fits all

Correct Answer: Aedes biting in daytime reduces impact of bed nets, so source reduction and daytime protection are crucial

Q20. Which laboratory marker is most helpful to distinguish recent dengue infection from past exposure?

  • Dengue IgG alone
  • Dengue IgM seroconversion or rising IgM titres
  • Giemsa-stained malaria smear

Correct Answer: Dengue IgM seroconversion or rising IgM titres

Q21. Which of the following measures is a core component of Integrated Vector Management (IVM)?

  • Exclusive use of a single insecticide class
  • Evidence-based decision making and intersectoral collaboration
  • Mass prophylactic antibiotics
  • Replacing surveillance with routine fogging

Correct Answer: Evidence-based decision making and intersectoral collaboration

Q22. In severe falciparum malaria with cerebral involvement, the recommended parenteral treatment is:

  • Oral chloroquine
  • Intravenous artesunate
  • Oral artemisinin monotherapy
  • Topical antimalarials

Correct Answer: Intravenous artesunate

Q23. Which insecticide class is commonly used for long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs)?

  • Organophosphates
  • Pyrethroids
  • Carbamates only
  • Neonicotinoids exclusively

Correct Answer: Pyrethroids

Q24. Which public health action can help prevent urban dengue transmission most effectively?

  • Improving water storage practices and eliminating standing water in containers
  • Distributing chloroquine to all households
  • Planting mosquito-repellent trees only
  • Using antibiotics in community water supplies

Correct Answer: Improving water storage practices and eliminating standing water in containers

Q25. The phenomenon where prior dengue infection increases risk of severe disease on subsequent heterologous infection is called:

  • Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE)
  • Cross-protection
  • Original antigenic sin
  • Immune tolerance

Correct Answer: Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE)

Q26. Which drug is commonly used as a partner in ACTs to provide a longer post-treatment prophylactic effect?

  • Artemisinin monotherapy
  • Lumefantrine, piperaquine or mefloquine as partner drugs
  • Penicillin
  • Paracetamol

Correct Answer: Lumefantrine, piperaquine or mefloquine as partner drugs

Q27. Community-engaged source reduction targets which stage of the mosquito life cycle?

  • Adult feeding
  • Egg and larval stages in breeding containers
  • Sporozoite maturation in mosquito salivary glands
  • Gametocyte clearance in humans

Correct Answer: Egg and larval stages in breeding containers

Q28. Which strategy helps mitigate selection pressure for insecticide resistance?

  • Monotherapy with a single insecticide everywhere
  • Insecticide rotation and combining chemical and non-chemical methods
  • Stopping all vector control interventions
  • Continuous ultra-low-dose application of one insecticide

Correct Answer: Insecticide rotation and combining chemical and non-chemical methods

Q29. For dengue patients, which treatment is contraindicated because it increases bleeding risk?

  • Acetaminophen (paracetamol)
  • Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen or aspirin
  • Oral fluids and rest
  • Careful monitoring of hematocrit

Correct Answer: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen or aspirin

Q30. As a B. Pharm graduate participating in malaria, dengue and chikungunya control, a key role includes:

  • Prescribing IV artesunate without supervision
  • Ensuring rational dispensing, pharmacovigilance, patient counselling and community education on prevention
  • Replacing entomologists in vector surveillance
  • Administering vaccines without regulatory approval

Correct Answer: Ensuring rational dispensing, pharmacovigilance, patient counselling and community education on prevention

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