Personal hygiene and healthcare practices MCQs With Answer

Personal hygiene and healthcare practices are fundamental topics for B. Pharm students learning safe pharmacy practice, infection control, and patient safety. This introduction covers key concepts such as hand hygiene, medical asepsis, sterilization, disinfection, personal protective equipment (PPE), waste management, and environmental cleaning. Understanding microbiological contamination, Spaulding classification, autoclave validation, antiseptics versus disinfectants, and safe handling of cytotoxic drugs is essential for compounding, dispensing, and clinical interactions. Emphasis on standard precautions, WHO hand‑rub technique, sharps disposal, and occupational vaccinations helps reduce nosocomial infections and cross‑contamination in pharmacy settings. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which of the following best describes the primary goal of hand hygiene in healthcare settings?

  • To moisturize skin to prevent dermatitis
  • To remove visible dirt only
  • To reduce microbial load and prevent transmission of pathogens
  • To sterilize hands completely

Correct Answer: To reduce microbial load and prevent transmission of pathogens

Q2. According to WHO, which is NOT one of the “Five Moments for Hand Hygiene”?

  • Before touching a patient
  • Before a clean/aseptic procedure
  • After touching patient surroundings
  • Before taking off gloves

Correct Answer: Before taking off gloves

Q3. Which antiseptic is commonly recommended for surgical skin preparation due to persistent activity?

  • 70% isopropyl alcohol
  • Povidone‑iodine
  • Chlorhexidine gluconate
  • Hydrogen peroxide

Correct Answer: Chlorhexidine gluconate

Q4. The Spaulding classification groups medical devices by risk. Which device is classified as ‘critical’?

  • Stethoscope
  • Blood pressure cuff
  • Scalpel blade
  • External ECG lead

Correct Answer: Scalpel blade

Q5. Which physical sterilization method uses saturated steam under pressure?

  • Dry heat sterilization
  • Filtration
  • Autoclaving
  • Ethylene oxide gas sterilization

Correct Answer: Autoclaving

Q6. Typical standard autoclave conditions for steam sterilization are which of the following?

  • 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi
  • 60°C for 30 minutes at atmospheric pressure
  • 160°C for 2 hours with dry heat
  • 37°C for 24 hours with humidity

Correct Answer: 121°C for 15 minutes at 15 psi

Q7. Which indicator provides the most reliable confirmation of sterilization efficacy?

  • Internal chemical tape indicator
  • External color‑changing label
  • Biological indicator with spores
  • Visual inspection of packaging

Correct Answer: Biological indicator with spores

Q8. Which disinfectant is typically recommended for surface decontamination against viruses and bacteria in healthcare?

  • Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
  • Sterile saline
  • Mineral oil
  • Glycerin

Correct Answer: Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)

Q9. Which statement about surgical asepsis versus medical asepsis is correct?

  • Medical asepsis eliminates all microorganisms; surgical asepsis reduces counts
  • Surgical asepsis aims for complete sterility; medical asepsis reduces microbial load
  • Both terms are interchangeable
  • Medical asepsis is only used in operating rooms

Correct Answer: Surgical asepsis aims for complete sterility; medical asepsis reduces microbial load

Q10. In a laminar airflow workstation used for aseptic compounding, the main function of HEPA filtration is to:

  • Humidify the work area
  • Remove particulate and microbial contamination from incoming air
  • Sterilize products chemically
  • Provide heating to maintain temperature

Correct Answer: Remove particulate and microbial contamination from incoming air

Q11. For compounded sterile preparations, which environmental monitoring method detects viable airborne microorganisms?

  • Surface ATP luminometry
  • Settle plates (passive air sampling)
  • Particle counter for non‑viable particles
  • Visual cleanliness audit

Correct Answer: Settle plates (passive air sampling)

Q12. Which PPE is essential when handling chemotherapy (cytotoxic) agents in a pharmacy?

  • Open‑finger gloves and lab coat
  • Double chemotherapy‑rated gloves, impermeable gown, and face protection
  • Only surgical mask
  • Cotton apron and cloth gloves

Correct Answer: Double chemotherapy‑rated gloves, impermeable gown, and face protection

Q13. What is the correct disposal method for used needles and syringes in a hospital pharmacy?

  • Seal in regular trash bags
  • Recycle with plastic waste
  • Place in puncture‑resistant sharps container
  • Burn in open incinerator without containment

Correct Answer: Place in puncture‑resistant sharps container

Q14. Which vaccine is strongly recommended for healthcare workers to prevent occupational transmission?

  • Influenza only
  • Hepatitis B
  • Varicella only
  • Yellow fever

Correct Answer: Hepatitis B

Q15. Which chemical sterilant is used for heat‑sensitive medical equipment and requires aeration after exposure?

  • Hydrogen peroxide vapor
  • Ethylene oxide gas
  • Ethanol 70%
  • Autoclave steam

Correct Answer: Ethylene oxide gas

Q16. The most appropriate immediate action after a needlestick injury from a potentially infectious source is to:

  • Wash the area with soap and water and report the incident
  • Ignore if no pain is present
  • Apply alcohol only and continue work
  • Suck the wound to remove blood

Correct Answer: Wash the area with soap and water and report the incident

Q17. Which class of disinfectant is known for high‑level disinfection of semicritical instruments (e.g., endoscopes) when heat cannot be used?

  • Phenolics
  • Glutaraldehyde
  • Soap and water
  • Vegetable oil

Correct Answer: Glutaraldehyde

Q18. Cross‑contamination in a pharmacy most commonly results from which practice?

  • Using dedicated equipment for hazardous drugs
  • Performing cleaning before compounding
  • Improper glove changes and inadequate surface disinfection
  • Segregating waste streams

Correct Answer: Improper glove changes and inadequate surface disinfection

Q19. Which hand hygiene method is preferred when hands are not visibly soiled and rapid decontamination is needed?

  • Washing with antiseptic soap and water for 5 seconds
  • Alcohol‑based hand rub for at least 20–30 seconds
  • Rinsing with sterile water
  • Applying lotion only

Correct Answer: Alcohol‑based hand rub for at least 20–30 seconds

Q20. Which component is LEAST effective against bacterial spores?

  • Autoclaving at validated parameters
  • Ethylene oxide gas sterilization
  • 70% isopropyl alcohol
  • Dry heat at appropriate temperature/time

Correct Answer: 70% isopropyl alcohol

Q21. In cleaning a laminar airflow hood before sterile compounding, which sequence is recommended?

  • Disinfect work surface, then clean ceiling
  • Clean from cleanest (HEPA area) to dirtiest (front edge) using sterile wipes and appropriate disinfectant
  • Spray disinfectant into the HEPA filter
  • Only wipe the front edge where hands rest

Correct Answer: Clean from cleanest (HEPA area) to dirtiest (front edge) using sterile wipes and appropriate disinfectant

Q22. Which practice reduces airborne contamination during aseptic manipulation?

  • Talking and leaning over critical area
  • Performing manipulations as far back in the hood as feasible with minimal movement
  • Opening windows to increase ventilation
  • Using fans to circulate room air

Correct Answer: Performing manipulations as far back in the hood as feasible with minimal movement

Q23. Which monitoring indicator specifically measures non‑viable particle counts in an aseptic area?

  • Settle plate culture
  • ATP bioluminescence
  • Particle counter
  • pH indicator strip

Correct Answer: Particle counter

Q24. Which is a common cause of healthcare‑associated infections (HAIs) in pharmacy settings?

  • Proper storage of medications
  • Poor hand hygiene and contaminated surfaces
  • Using single‑use devices once
  • Appropriate waste segregation

Correct Answer: Poor hand hygiene and contaminated surfaces

Q25. Which antiseptic agent is rapidly bactericidal but has limited residual activity on skin?

  • Chlorhexidine
  • Iodophors (povidone‑iodine)
  • Alcohol (ethanol or isopropanol)
  • Hexachlorophene

Correct Answer: Alcohol (ethanol or isopropanol)

Q26. For environmental cleaning of spill of cytotoxic drug powder, which is the appropriate immediate action?

  • Brush the powder into regular trash
  • Leave it to dry and evaporate
  • Use designated spill kit and PPE to contain and decontaminate
  • Wash hands only

Correct Answer: Use designated spill kit and PPE to contain and decontaminate

Q27. Which factor most influences development of antiseptic resistance in microorganisms?

  • Appropriate single‑use antiseptic application
  • Prolonged sublethal exposure and overuse of antiseptics
  • Storage of antiseptics at recommended temperature
  • Using EPA‑registered disinfectants as directed

Correct Answer: Prolonged sublethal exposure and overuse of antiseptics

Q28. Which waste category includes expired, unused cytotoxic medications?

  • General non‑hazardous waste
  • Chemical/pharmaceutical hazardous waste
  • Food waste
  • Recyclable paper

Correct Answer: Chemical/pharmaceutical hazardous waste

Q29. Which practice is essential to maintain sterile integrity of a sealed vial before use?

  • Keep the vial cap off during storage
  • Store in a contaminated area
  • Check expiration date and inspect seal and cap integrity
  • Shake vigorously to mix contents prior to storage

Correct Answer: Check expiration date and inspect seal and cap integrity

Q30. Which respiratory precaution is indicated for a patient with suspected airborne infectious disease when working in a pharmacy clinic?

  • Standard surgical mask only
  • No mask if patient feels well
  • Use of N95 or higher respirator and placement in airborne isolation room
  • Cloth mask is sufficient

Correct Answer: Use of N95 or higher respirator and placement in airborne isolation room

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