Organization of nervous system MCQs With Answer

by

Mastering the Organization of Nervous System MCQs With Answer is essential for B. Pharm students preparing for pharmacology and physiology exams. This focused collection covers neuroanatomy, neurophysiology, synaptic transmission, autonomic regulation, neurotransmitters, blood-brain barrier, cranial nerves, spinal tracts and clinical correlations relevant to drug action and therapeutic targets. Clear, keyword-rich questions help reinforce concepts like central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, autonomic nervous system, ion channels, receptors (cholinergic, adrenergic, GABA, glutamate), and neuromuscular junctions. Each MCQ is designed to deepen understanding and link basic science to pharmacological implications. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which cell type is primarily responsible for myelination in the central nervous system?

  • Schwann cell
  • Astrocyte
  • Oligodendrocyte
  • Microglia

Correct Answer: Oligodendrocyte

Q2. The blood-brain barrier is formed mainly by which cellular component?

  • Fenestrated capillaries
  • Tight junctions between endothelial cells
  • Astrocyte synapses
  • Perineuronal nets

Correct Answer: Tight junctions between endothelial cells

Q3. Which neurotransmitter is the primary excitatory transmitter in the central nervous system?

  • GABA
  • Glycine
  • Glutamate
  • Acetylcholine

Correct Answer: Glutamate

Q4. Which of the following best describes an ionotropic receptor?

  • Receptor linked to G-proteins and second messengers
  • Ligand-gated ion channel producing rapid responses
  • Receptor that alters gene transcription directly
  • Enzyme that degrades neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft

Correct Answer: Ligand-gated ion channel producing rapid responses

Q5. Which part of the neuron receives most synaptic input?

  • Axon hillock
  • Dendrites
  • Axon terminal
  • Myelin sheath

Correct Answer: Dendrites

Q6. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord primarily processes which type of information?

  • Motor output to skeletal muscle
  • Autonomic efferent signals
  • Sensory afferent input
  • Secretion of cerebrospinal fluid

Correct Answer: Sensory afferent input

Q7. Which cranial nerve is responsible for parasympathetic innervation to thoracic and abdominal organs?

  • Facial nerve (VII)
  • Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
  • Vagus nerve (X)
  • Trigeminal nerve (V)

Correct Answer: Vagus nerve (X)

Q8. Which channel opening initiates the rising phase of a typical neuronal action potential?

  • Voltage-gated potassium channels
  • Voltage-gated sodium channels
  • Calcium-activated chloride channels
  • Leak potassium channels

Correct Answer: Voltage-gated sodium channels

Q9. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors increase acetylcholine action by which mechanism?

  • Blocking acetylcholine receptors
  • Preventing acetylcholine reuptake into presynaptic terminal
  • Inhibiting enzymatic breakdown of acetylcholine
  • Enhancing acetylcholine synthesis

Correct Answer: Inhibiting enzymatic breakdown of acetylcholine

Q10. The neuromuscular junction uses which neurotransmitter to activate muscle fibers?

  • Noradrenaline
  • Dopamine
  • Acetylcholine
  • GABA

Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

Q11. Long-term potentiation (LTP) in the hippocampus primarily involves activation of which receptor?

  • GABAA receptor
  • NMDA receptor
  • Muscarinic M2 receptor
  • Alpha-adrenergic receptor

Correct Answer: NMDA receptor

Q12. Which glial cell type is the resident immune cell of the CNS?

  • Astrocyte
  • Schwann cell
  • Microglia
  • Ependymal cell

Correct Answer: Microglia

Q13. The primary motor cortex is located in which gyrus of the cerebral cortex?

  • Precentral gyrus
  • Postcentral gyrus
  • Superior temporal gyrus
  • Cingulate gyrus

Correct Answer: Precentral gyrus

Q14. Which tract carries pain and temperature sensations to the brain?

  • Dorsal column-medial lemniscus
  • Lateral spinothalamic tract
  • Corticospinal tract
  • Spinocerebellar tract

Correct Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tract

Q15. Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies against which receptor?

  • NMDA receptor
  • Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at neuromuscular junction
  • GABAB receptor
  • Beta-adrenergic receptor

Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at neuromuscular junction

Q16. Which structure regulates homeostasis, endocrine function, and autonomic output?

  • Hippocampus
  • Hypothalamus
  • Thalamus
  • Basal ganglia

Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

Q17. Which neurotransmitter system is primarily targeted in Parkinson’s disease therapy?

  • Serotonergic system
  • Dopaminergic system
  • GABAergic system
  • Cholinergic interneurons only

Correct Answer: Dopaminergic system

Q18. What is the main function of the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier at the choroid plexus?

  • Prevent CSF production
  • Separate CSF from plasma and regulate composition
  • Provide electrical insulation to neurons
  • Transport CSF into lymphatics

Correct Answer: Separate CSF from plasma and regulate composition

Q19. Which receptor subtype mediates fast inhibitory synaptic transmission in the CNS?

  • GABAA receptor
  • GABAB receptor
  • mGluR5 receptor
  • Alpha1-adrenergic receptor

Correct Answer: GABAA receptor

Q20. Substance P is most closely associated with which physiological process?

  • Inhibition of motor neurons
  • Promotion of analgesia
  • Nociception and pain transmission
  • Myelination of axons

Correct Answer: Nociception and pain transmission

Q21. Which part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for “fight or flight” responses?

  • Parasympathetic nervous system
  • Somatic nervous system
  • Enteric nervous system
  • Sympathetic nervous system

Correct Answer: Sympathetic nervous system

Q22. The limbic system is most involved in which functions?

  • Voluntary motor coordination
  • Emotion, memory and behavior
  • Fine touch discrimination
  • Balance and posture

Correct Answer: Emotion, memory and behavior

Q23. Which enzyme is critical for dopamine synthesis from L-DOPA?

  • Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
  • Tyrosine hydroxylase
  • DOPA decarboxylase (aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase)
  • Choline acetyltransferase

Correct Answer: DOPA decarboxylase (aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase)

Q24. Which meninges layer is in direct contact with the brain surface?

  • Dura mater
  • Arachnoid mater
  • Pia mater
  • Endosteal layer

Correct Answer: Pia mater

Q25. The primary sensory cortex is located in which gyrus?

  • Precentral gyrus
  • Postcentral gyrus
  • Inferior frontal gyrus
  • Supramarginal gyrus

Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus

Q26. Which drug action would directly reduce synaptic glutamate activity?

  • NMDA receptor agonist
  • AMPA receptor antagonist
  • GABAA receptor antagonist
  • Cholinesterase inhibitor

Correct Answer: AMPA receptor antagonist

Q27. Which ion movement is primarily responsible for repolarization after an action potential?

  • Sodium influx
  • Potassium efflux
  • Calcium influx
  • Chloride efflux

Correct Answer: Potassium efflux

Q28. The cerebellum is principally involved in which function?

  • Language comprehension
  • Coordination of movement and balance
  • Long-term memory storage
  • Pain perception

Correct Answer: Coordination of movement and balance

Q29. Which receptor type mediates parasympathetic effects on the heart to decrease heart rate?

  • Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
  • Muscarinic M2 receptor
  • Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
  • Nicotinic N receptor

Correct Answer: Muscarinic M2 receptor

Q30. A lesion in the Broca’s area typically causes which deficit?

  • Fluent aphasia with preserved comprehension
  • Nonfluent (expressive) aphasia with impaired speech production
  • Complete loss of sensory function
  • Memory consolidation impairment

Correct Answer: Nonfluent (expressive) aphasia with impaired speech production

Q31. Which pathway conveys proprioceptive information from lower limb to the cerebellum?

  • Corticospinal tract
  • Dorsal column to thalamus
  • Posterior spinocerebellar tract
  • Spinothalamic tract

Correct Answer: Posterior spinocerebellar tract

Q32. Which protein is essential for vesicular release of neurotransmitter at the presynaptic terminal?

  • Sodium-potassium ATPase
  • SNARE proteins (e.g., synaptobrevin, SNAP-25)
  • Tubulin
  • Myelin basic protein

Correct Answer: SNARE proteins (e.g., synaptobrevin, SNAP-25)

Q33. Which cranial nerve mediates taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

  • Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
  • Vagus nerve (X)
  • Facial nerve (VII)
  • Hypoglossal nerve (XII)

Correct Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

Q34. Which receptor family uses cyclic AMP as a common second messenger in the nervous system?

  • Ionotropic glutamate receptors
  • Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
  • G-protein-coupled receptors (e.g., beta-adrenergic)
  • Voltage-gated sodium channels

Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors (e.g., beta-adrenergic)

Q35. Which diagnostic test records electrical activity of the brain?

  • Computed tomography (CT)
  • Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  • Electroencephalography (EEG)
  • Positron emission tomography (PET)

Correct Answer: Electroencephalography (EEG)

Q36. Which neurotransmitter is primarily inhibitory in the spinal cord and brainstem?

  • Glutamate
  • GABA
  • Substance P
  • Norepinephrine

Correct Answer: GABA

Q37. Reuptake inhibition of serotonin increases synaptic serotonin by targeting which transporter?

  • DAT (dopamine transporter)
  • SERT (serotonin transporter)
  • NET (norepinephrine transporter)
  • VGCC (voltage-gated calcium channel)

Correct Answer: SERT (serotonin transporter)

Q38. Which brain structure is most involved in procedural learning and habit formation?

  • Hippocampus
  • Basal ganglia
  • Medulla oblongata
  • Corpus callosum

Correct Answer: Basal ganglia

Q39. Which spinal reflex arc component directly activates the effector muscle?

  • Sensory receptor
  • Sensory neuron
  • Motor neuron
  • Interneuron only

Correct Answer: Motor neuron

Q40. Which condition is characterized by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra?

  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease

Q41. Which receptor class at the neuromuscular junction is blocked by curare leading to muscle paralysis?

  • Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
  • Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (skeletal muscle type)
  • Glycine receptors
  • NMDA receptors

Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (skeletal muscle type)

Q42. Which component of a synapse is the release site for neurotransmitters?

  • Dendritic spine
  • Axon terminal (presynaptic terminal)
  • Myelin sheath
  • Node of Ranvier

Correct Answer: Axon terminal (presynaptic terminal)

Q43. Which drug class enhances GABAA receptor activity to produce anxiolytic and sedative effects?

  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Tricyclic antidepressants
  • Beta-blockers

Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

Q44. Which cortical area is primarily responsible for processing visual information?

  • Primary auditory cortex
  • Primary visual cortex (occipital lobe)
  • Primary somatosensory cortex
  • Prefrontal cortex

Correct Answer: Primary visual cortex (occipital lobe)

Q45. Which of the following best describes metabotropic receptors?

  • Direct ion channel opening upon ligand binding
  • Indirectly modulate ion channels via G-proteins and second messengers
  • Always excitatory
  • Structural components of the cytoskeleton

Correct Answer: Indirectly modulate ion channels via G-proteins and second messengers

Q46. Which ascending tract conveys fine touch and vibration to the brain?

  • Lateral corticospinal tract
  • Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
  • Lateral spinothalamic tract
  • Anterior spinocerebellar tract

Correct Answer: Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway

Q47. Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from tryptophan and modulates mood and sleep?

  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • Norepinephrine
  • Acetylcholine

Correct Answer: Serotonin

Q48. Which physiologic barrier limits drug penetration into the central nervous system?

  • Gastrointestinal mucosa
  • Blood-brain barrier
  • Renal glomerulus
  • Skin epidermis

Correct Answer: Blood-brain barrier

Q49. Which condition involves demyelination in the central nervous system leading to varied neurological deficits?

  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes only
  • Huntington’s disease

Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

Q50. Which mechanism describes synaptic plasticity underlying learning and memory?

  • Static synapse number with fixed strength
  • Activity-dependent changes in synaptic strength like LTP and LTD
  • Degradation of all neurotransmitters
  • Permanent blockade of ion channels

Correct Answer: Activity-dependent changes in synaptic strength like LTP and LTD

Leave a Comment