Mastering the Organization of Nervous System MCQs With Answer is essential for B. Pharm students preparing for pharmacology and physiology exams. This focused collection covers neuroanatomy, neurophysiology, synaptic transmission, autonomic regulation, neurotransmitters, blood-brain barrier, cranial nerves, spinal tracts and clinical correlations relevant to drug action and therapeutic targets. Clear, keyword-rich questions help reinforce concepts like central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, autonomic nervous system, ion channels, receptors (cholinergic, adrenergic, GABA, glutamate), and neuromuscular junctions. Each MCQ is designed to deepen understanding and link basic science to pharmacological implications. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.
Q1. Which cell type is primarily responsible for myelination in the central nervous system?
- Schwann cell
- Astrocyte
- Oligodendrocyte
- Microglia
Correct Answer: Oligodendrocyte
Q2. The blood-brain barrier is formed mainly by which cellular component?
- Fenestrated capillaries
- Tight junctions between endothelial cells
- Astrocyte synapses
- Perineuronal nets
Correct Answer: Tight junctions between endothelial cells
Q3. Which neurotransmitter is the primary excitatory transmitter in the central nervous system?
- GABA
- Glycine
- Glutamate
- Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Glutamate
Q4. Which of the following best describes an ionotropic receptor?
- Receptor linked to G-proteins and second messengers
- Ligand-gated ion channel producing rapid responses
- Receptor that alters gene transcription directly
- Enzyme that degrades neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft
Correct Answer: Ligand-gated ion channel producing rapid responses
Q5. Which part of the neuron receives most synaptic input?
- Axon hillock
- Dendrites
- Axon terminal
- Myelin sheath
Correct Answer: Dendrites
Q6. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord primarily processes which type of information?
- Motor output to skeletal muscle
- Autonomic efferent signals
- Sensory afferent input
- Secretion of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct Answer: Sensory afferent input
Q7. Which cranial nerve is responsible for parasympathetic innervation to thoracic and abdominal organs?
- Facial nerve (VII)
- Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
- Vagus nerve (X)
- Trigeminal nerve (V)
Correct Answer: Vagus nerve (X)
Q8. Which channel opening initiates the rising phase of a typical neuronal action potential?
- Voltage-gated potassium channels
- Voltage-gated sodium channels
- Calcium-activated chloride channels
- Leak potassium channels
Correct Answer: Voltage-gated sodium channels
Q9. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors increase acetylcholine action by which mechanism?
- Blocking acetylcholine receptors
- Preventing acetylcholine reuptake into presynaptic terminal
- Inhibiting enzymatic breakdown of acetylcholine
- Enhancing acetylcholine synthesis
Correct Answer: Inhibiting enzymatic breakdown of acetylcholine
Q10. The neuromuscular junction uses which neurotransmitter to activate muscle fibers?
- Noradrenaline
- Dopamine
- Acetylcholine
- GABA
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Q11. Long-term potentiation (LTP) in the hippocampus primarily involves activation of which receptor?
- GABAA receptor
- NMDA receptor
- Muscarinic M2 receptor
- Alpha-adrenergic receptor
Correct Answer: NMDA receptor
Q12. Which glial cell type is the resident immune cell of the CNS?
- Astrocyte
- Schwann cell
- Microglia
- Ependymal cell
Correct Answer: Microglia
Q13. The primary motor cortex is located in which gyrus of the cerebral cortex?
- Precentral gyrus
- Postcentral gyrus
- Superior temporal gyrus
- Cingulate gyrus
Correct Answer: Precentral gyrus
Q14. Which tract carries pain and temperature sensations to the brain?
- Dorsal column-medial lemniscus
- Lateral spinothalamic tract
- Corticospinal tract
- Spinocerebellar tract
Correct Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tract
Q15. Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies against which receptor?
- NMDA receptor
- Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at neuromuscular junction
- GABAB receptor
- Beta-adrenergic receptor
Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at neuromuscular junction
Q16. Which structure regulates homeostasis, endocrine function, and autonomic output?
- Hippocampus
- Hypothalamus
- Thalamus
- Basal ganglia
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Q17. Which neurotransmitter system is primarily targeted in Parkinson’s disease therapy?
- Serotonergic system
- Dopaminergic system
- GABAergic system
- Cholinergic interneurons only
Correct Answer: Dopaminergic system
Q18. What is the main function of the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier at the choroid plexus?
- Prevent CSF production
- Separate CSF from plasma and regulate composition
- Provide electrical insulation to neurons
- Transport CSF into lymphatics
Correct Answer: Separate CSF from plasma and regulate composition
Q19. Which receptor subtype mediates fast inhibitory synaptic transmission in the CNS?
- GABAA receptor
- GABAB receptor
- mGluR5 receptor
- Alpha1-adrenergic receptor
Correct Answer: GABAA receptor
Q20. Substance P is most closely associated with which physiological process?
- Inhibition of motor neurons
- Promotion of analgesia
- Nociception and pain transmission
- Myelination of axons
Correct Answer: Nociception and pain transmission
Q21. Which part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for “fight or flight” responses?
- Parasympathetic nervous system
- Somatic nervous system
- Enteric nervous system
- Sympathetic nervous system
Correct Answer: Sympathetic nervous system
Q22. The limbic system is most involved in which functions?
- Voluntary motor coordination
- Emotion, memory and behavior
- Fine touch discrimination
- Balance and posture
Correct Answer: Emotion, memory and behavior
Q23. Which enzyme is critical for dopamine synthesis from L-DOPA?
- Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
- Tyrosine hydroxylase
- DOPA decarboxylase (aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase)
- Choline acetyltransferase
Correct Answer: DOPA decarboxylase (aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase)
Q24. Which meninges layer is in direct contact with the brain surface?
- Dura mater
- Arachnoid mater
- Pia mater
- Endosteal layer
Correct Answer: Pia mater
Q25. The primary sensory cortex is located in which gyrus?
- Precentral gyrus
- Postcentral gyrus
- Inferior frontal gyrus
- Supramarginal gyrus
Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus
Q26. Which drug action would directly reduce synaptic glutamate activity?
- NMDA receptor agonist
- AMPA receptor antagonist
- GABAA receptor antagonist
- Cholinesterase inhibitor
Correct Answer: AMPA receptor antagonist
Q27. Which ion movement is primarily responsible for repolarization after an action potential?
- Sodium influx
- Potassium efflux
- Calcium influx
- Chloride efflux
Correct Answer: Potassium efflux
Q28. The cerebellum is principally involved in which function?
- Language comprehension
- Coordination of movement and balance
- Long-term memory storage
- Pain perception
Correct Answer: Coordination of movement and balance
Q29. Which receptor type mediates parasympathetic effects on the heart to decrease heart rate?
- Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
- Muscarinic M2 receptor
- Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
- Nicotinic N receptor
Correct Answer: Muscarinic M2 receptor
Q30. A lesion in the Broca’s area typically causes which deficit?
- Fluent aphasia with preserved comprehension
- Nonfluent (expressive) aphasia with impaired speech production
- Complete loss of sensory function
- Memory consolidation impairment
Correct Answer: Nonfluent (expressive) aphasia with impaired speech production
Q31. Which pathway conveys proprioceptive information from lower limb to the cerebellum?
- Corticospinal tract
- Dorsal column to thalamus
- Posterior spinocerebellar tract
- Spinothalamic tract
Correct Answer: Posterior spinocerebellar tract
Q32. Which protein is essential for vesicular release of neurotransmitter at the presynaptic terminal?
- Sodium-potassium ATPase
- SNARE proteins (e.g., synaptobrevin, SNAP-25)
- Tubulin
- Myelin basic protein
Correct Answer: SNARE proteins (e.g., synaptobrevin, SNAP-25)
Q33. Which cranial nerve mediates taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
- Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
- Vagus nerve (X)
- Facial nerve (VII)
- Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
Correct Answer: Facial nerve (VII)
Q34. Which receptor family uses cyclic AMP as a common second messenger in the nervous system?
- Ionotropic glutamate receptors
- Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
- G-protein-coupled receptors (e.g., beta-adrenergic)
- Voltage-gated sodium channels
Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors (e.g., beta-adrenergic)
Q35. Which diagnostic test records electrical activity of the brain?
- Computed tomography (CT)
- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- Electroencephalography (EEG)
- Positron emission tomography (PET)
Correct Answer: Electroencephalography (EEG)
Q36. Which neurotransmitter is primarily inhibitory in the spinal cord and brainstem?
- Glutamate
- GABA
- Substance P
- Norepinephrine
Correct Answer: GABA
Q37. Reuptake inhibition of serotonin increases synaptic serotonin by targeting which transporter?
- DAT (dopamine transporter)
- SERT (serotonin transporter)
- NET (norepinephrine transporter)
- VGCC (voltage-gated calcium channel)
Correct Answer: SERT (serotonin transporter)
Q38. Which brain structure is most involved in procedural learning and habit formation?
- Hippocampus
- Basal ganglia
- Medulla oblongata
- Corpus callosum
Correct Answer: Basal ganglia
Q39. Which spinal reflex arc component directly activates the effector muscle?
- Sensory receptor
- Sensory neuron
- Motor neuron
- Interneuron only
Correct Answer: Motor neuron
Q40. Which condition is characterized by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra?
- Alzheimer’s disease
- Parkinson’s disease
- Multiple sclerosis
- Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Q41. Which receptor class at the neuromuscular junction is blocked by curare leading to muscle paralysis?
- Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
- Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (skeletal muscle type)
- Glycine receptors
- NMDA receptors
Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (skeletal muscle type)
Q42. Which component of a synapse is the release site for neurotransmitters?
- Dendritic spine
- Axon terminal (presynaptic terminal)
- Myelin sheath
- Node of Ranvier
Correct Answer: Axon terminal (presynaptic terminal)
Q43. Which drug class enhances GABAA receptor activity to produce anxiolytic and sedative effects?
- Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
- Benzodiazepines
- Tricyclic antidepressants
- Beta-blockers
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines
Q44. Which cortical area is primarily responsible for processing visual information?
- Primary auditory cortex
- Primary visual cortex (occipital lobe)
- Primary somatosensory cortex
- Prefrontal cortex
Correct Answer: Primary visual cortex (occipital lobe)
Q45. Which of the following best describes metabotropic receptors?
- Direct ion channel opening upon ligand binding
- Indirectly modulate ion channels via G-proteins and second messengers
- Always excitatory
- Structural components of the cytoskeleton
Correct Answer: Indirectly modulate ion channels via G-proteins and second messengers
Q46. Which ascending tract conveys fine touch and vibration to the brain?
- Lateral corticospinal tract
- Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
- Lateral spinothalamic tract
- Anterior spinocerebellar tract
Correct Answer: Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway
Q47. Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from tryptophan and modulates mood and sleep?
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- Norepinephrine
- Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Q48. Which physiologic barrier limits drug penetration into the central nervous system?
- Gastrointestinal mucosa
- Blood-brain barrier
- Renal glomerulus
- Skin epidermis
Correct Answer: Blood-brain barrier
Q49. Which condition involves demyelination in the central nervous system leading to varied neurological deficits?
- Myasthenia gravis
- Multiple sclerosis
- Peripheral neuropathy due to diabetes only
- Huntington’s disease
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Q50. Which mechanism describes synaptic plasticity underlying learning and memory?
- Static synapse number with fixed strength
- Activity-dependent changes in synaptic strength like LTP and LTD
- Degradation of all neurotransmitters
- Permanent blockade of ion channels
Correct Answer: Activity-dependent changes in synaptic strength like LTP and LTD

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