Medication Management and Medication Safety MCQ Quiz

Medication management and safety are fundamental aspects of pharmacy practice, playing a critical role in preventing errors and improving therapeutic outcomes. Pharm.D. students must be proficient in applying safety principles, managing drug regimens, counseling patients, and utilizing error-reporting systems. This quiz covers essential topics such as the Pharmacists’ Patient Care Process (PPCP), types of medication errors, high-alert drugs, and best practices for safe medication use across healthcare settings.

1. Which of the following best defines medication management?

  • A. Dispensing the most expensive medication
  • B. Prescribing medications based on patient demand
  • C. Ensuring appropriate selection, dosing, and monitoring of medications
  • D. Reducing patient visits
    Correct answer: C. Ensuring appropriate selection, dosing, and monitoring of medications

2. What is a sentinel event in healthcare?

  • A. A drug with low adherence rates
  • B. A preventable error causing patient death or serious harm
  • C. An insurance billing mistake
  • D. A skipped dose of medication
    Correct answer: B. A preventable error causing patient death or serious harm

3. The “Five Rights” of medication administration include:

  • A. Drug, dose, device, day, and doctor
  • B. Right patient, drug, dose, route, and time
  • C. Right brand, label, box, expiration, and usage
  • D. Strength, storage, nurse, code, and formula
    Correct answer: B. Right patient, drug, dose, route, and time

4. Which of the following is a high-alert medication?

  • A. Lisinopril
  • B. Amoxicillin
  • C. Insulin
  • D. Diphenhydramine
    Correct answer: C. Insulin

5. What type of error occurs when a drug is given at the wrong time but to the right patient and in the correct dose?

  • A. Omission error
  • B. Timing error
  • C. Monitoring error
  • D. Unauthorized drug error
    Correct answer: B. Timing error

6. The primary goal of medication reconciliation is to:

  • A. Add new medications to a patient’s profile
  • B. Match medications with disease codes
  • C. Prevent unintended discrepancies during care transitions
  • D. Review insurance coverage
    Correct answer: C. Prevent unintended discrepancies during care transitions

7. A common source of medication errors in electronic prescribing is:

  • A. Manual counting
  • B. Tall man lettering
  • C. Drop-down selection errors
  • D. Barcoding
    Correct answer: C. Drop-down selection errors

8. The ISMP is best known for its work in:

  • A. Drug pricing reform
  • B. Pharmacokinetics education
  • C. Medication error prevention and safety recommendations
  • D. Pharmacy certification exams
    Correct answer: C. Medication error prevention and safety recommendations

9. Which of the following would most help reduce look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug errors?

  • A. Using handwritten labels
  • B. Storing similar drugs side by side
  • C. Using Tall Man lettering
  • D. Removing expiration dates
    Correct answer: C. Using Tall Man lettering

10. What is the best practice for documenting an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?

  • A. Record only in verbal reports
  • B. Skip documentation if mild
  • C. Document in both patient chart and reporting system
  • D. Wait until discharge
    Correct answer: C. Document in both patient chart and reporting system

11. A root cause analysis (RCA) is typically performed:

  • A. Before medication dispensing
  • B. As a form of patient education
  • C. After a serious medication error occurs
  • D. During inventory audits
    Correct answer: C. After a serious medication error occurs

12. Which of the following is an example of a prescribing error?

  • A. Giving the wrong patient the right drug
  • B. Writing an illegible prescription
  • C. Administering a drug by IV instead of IM
  • D. Failing to scan a barcode
    Correct answer: B. Writing an illegible prescription

13. What is the purpose of a medication therapy management (MTM) session?

  • A. Refill prescriptions
  • B. Provide drug samples
  • C. Optimize therapeutic outcomes through patient review and counseling
  • D. Promote brand-name drugs
    Correct answer: C. Optimize therapeutic outcomes through patient review and counseling

14. The Joint Commission requires medication reconciliation at:

  • A. Prescription refill
  • B. Every new medication added
  • C. Every transition of care
  • D. Yearly health checkups
    Correct answer: C. Every transition of care

15. Barcoding in medication administration helps prevent errors by:

  • A. Improving drug metabolism
  • B. Detecting counterfeit drugs
  • C. Ensuring the right drug is given to the right patient
  • D. Measuring drug levels in blood
    Correct answer: C. Ensuring the right drug is given to the right patient

16. Which tool is most commonly used to assess a hospital’s medication safety practices?

  • A. BEERS Criteria
  • B. ISMP Self-Assessment Tool
  • C. DEA Form 222
  • D. REMS Checklist
    Correct answer: B. ISMP Self-Assessment Tool

17. An example of a dispensing error is:

  • A. Writing a wrong prescription
  • B. Administering the wrong route
  • C. Giving a patient the incorrect medication from the pharmacy
  • D. Omitting allergy status from chart
    Correct answer: C. Giving a patient the incorrect medication from the pharmacy

18. A pharmacist notices an illegible dose on a prescription. The best response is to:

  • A. Guess the most likely dose
  • B. Dispense a standard adult dose
  • C. Clarify with the prescriber before dispensing
  • D. Cancel the prescription
    Correct answer: C. Clarify with the prescriber before dispensing

19. What does the abbreviation REMS stand for?

  • A. Reimbursed Emergency Management System
  • B. Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy
  • C. Required Endocrinology Monitoring Sheet
  • D. Regulation for EMR Systems
    Correct answer: B. Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy

20. An example of a monitoring error is:

  • A. Failure to assess renal function in a patient on vancomycin
  • B. Wrong drug dispensed
  • C. Omitting patient allergies from label
  • D. Incorrect sig code entry
    Correct answer: A. Failure to assess renal function in a patient on vancomycin

21. Which factor increases the risk of medication errors in pediatric patients?

  • A. Limited drug options
  • B. Adult-only labeling
  • C. Weight-based dosing calculations
  • D. Drug resistance
    Correct answer: C. Weight-based dosing calculations

22. Which of the following is most likely to reduce medication errors in community pharmacy?

  • A. Rushed workflow
  • B. Interruptions during verification
  • C. Using barcode scanning and double checks
  • D. Single-staff operation
    Correct answer: C. Using barcode scanning and double checks

23. A near-miss event is:

  • A. A medication event that causes harm
  • B. An error caught before reaching the patient
  • C. A resolved drug interaction
  • D. A discontinued medication
    Correct answer: B. An error caught before reaching the patient

24. Pharmacists play a key role in reducing polypharmacy by:

  • A. Promoting supplements
  • B. Initiating unnecessary therapy
  • C. Regularly reviewing medications for appropriateness
  • D. Referring all decisions to prescribers
    Correct answer: C. Regularly reviewing medications for appropriateness

25. Which type of error involves an omitted dose due to stock shortage?

  • A. Documentation error
  • B. Transcription error
  • C. Supply chain-related omission error
  • D. ADR
    Correct answer: C. Supply chain-related omission error

26. What is one strategy for preventing medication errors in long-term care?

  • A. Limiting chart reviews
  • B. Non-pharmacist verification
  • C. Regular medication review and interdisciplinary communication
  • D. Ignoring PRN orders
    Correct answer: C. Regular medication review and interdisciplinary communication

27. The term “medication misadventure” refers to:

  • A. Correct therapeutic response
  • B. Any drug-related problem that interferes with desired outcomes
  • C. Successful off-label use
  • D. Minor side effects
    Correct answer: B. Any drug-related problem that interferes with desired outcomes

28. A patient receiving two interacting medications without monitoring is at risk of:

  • A. Therapeutic success
  • B. Synergism
  • C. Adverse drug event
  • D. Resistance
    Correct answer: C. Adverse drug event

29. Patient counseling is essential to prevent which type of error?

  • A. Dispensing error
  • B. Prescribing error
  • C. Patient administration error
  • D. Labeling error
    Correct answer: C. Patient administration error

30. The “Swiss Cheese Model” of error prevention emphasizes:

  • A. Eliminating drug choices
  • B. Multiple system layers that may each have weaknesses
  • C. A one-step verification system
  • D. Physician-only accountability
    Correct answer: B. Multiple system layers that may each have weaknesses

31. The best way to report a medication error anonymously is through:

  • A. Social media
  • B. FDA’s MedWatch or internal reporting systems
  • C. Direct phone calls to the manufacturer
  • D. Ignoring the error
    Correct answer: B. FDA’s MedWatch or internal reporting systems

32. A black box warning is intended to:

  • A. Indicate a generic product
  • B. Warn against food-drug interactions
  • C. Highlight serious or life-threatening risks
  • D. Encourage OTC conversion
    Correct answer: C. Highlight serious or life-threatening risks

33. In a pharmacy setting, the acronym “LASA” stands for:

  • A. Licensed And Safe Agents
  • B. Look-Alike Sound-Alike
  • C. Labeling And Storage Assessment
  • D. Legal And Structural Alerts
    Correct answer: B. Look-Alike Sound-Alike

34. The best method for preventing IV medication errors is:

  • A. Verbal instructions only
  • B. Manual calculations
  • C. Standardized concentrations and smart pumps
  • D. Single-nurse verification
    Correct answer: C. Standardized concentrations and smart pumps

35. Pharmacists help improve medication safety by:

  • A. Avoiding technology
  • B. Ignoring documentation
  • C. Educating patients and providers about safe use
  • D. Delegating patient interaction
    Correct answer: C. Educating patients and providers about safe use

36. What is the role of medication guides provided with certain prescriptions?

  • A. Advertise branded drugs
  • B. Replace counseling
  • C. Educate patients on safe and effective drug use
  • D. Confirm insurance coverage
    Correct answer: C. Educate patients on safe and effective drug use

37. Which of the following best describes a transcription error?

  • A. Failing to report a reaction
  • B. Incorrectly entering a verbal or written prescription
  • C. Skipping a dose
  • D. Documenting blood pressure
    Correct answer: B. Incorrectly entering a verbal or written prescription

38. A patient experiences a hypoglycemic episode after taking their normal insulin dose but skipping a meal. This is an example of:

  • A. Administration error
  • B. Therapeutic duplication
  • C. Predictable adverse drug reaction
  • D. Placebo effect
    Correct answer: C. Predictable adverse drug reaction

39. Which feature of EHRs enhances medication safety most?

  • A. Social media integration
  • B. Alerts for allergies and interactions
  • C. Unlimited prescribing
  • D. Direct access to social security numbers
    Correct answer: B. Alerts for allergies and interactions

40. What is a medication-use evaluation (MUE)?

  • A. A billing process
  • B. A marketing tool
  • C. A structured method to assess outcomes of drug use in a specific setting
  • D. A laboratory test
    Correct answer: C. A structured method to assess outcomes of drug use in a specific setting

41. A pharmacist should flag a potential safety concern if a patient is prescribed:

  • A. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen
  • B. Warfarin and NSAIDs
  • C. Multivitamin and zinc
  • D. Lisinopril and metoprolol
    Correct answer: B. Warfarin and NSAIDs

42. Which federal agency oversees drug labeling and medication guides?

  • A. DEA
  • B. CMS
  • C. FDA
  • D. EPA
    Correct answer: C. FDA

43. What is a medication adherence aid?

  • A. Drug interaction checker
  • B. A delivery system
  • C. A tool like a pill organizer to support correct use
  • D. A calendar
    Correct answer: C. A tool like a pill organizer to support correct use

44. Which of the following could prevent insulin dosing errors in a hospital?

  • A. Storing all vials together
  • B. Using insulin pens with dose selectors
  • C. Administering based on memory
  • D. Dispensing double doses
    Correct answer: B. Using insulin pens with dose selectors

45. What is the most common cause of medication errors?

  • A. Drug cost
  • B. Poor lighting
  • C. Human factors such as communication failures
  • D. Barcode errors
    Correct answer: C. Human factors such as communication failures

46. How often should a pharmacist review a patient’s medication list in ambulatory care?

  • A. Every five years
  • B. Only when a problem arises
  • C. At every patient visit
  • D. At discharge only
    Correct answer: C. At every patient visit

47. Which process reduces error risk when transferring prescriptions?

  • A. Verbal hand-off without documentation
  • B. Using written post-its
  • C. Electronic transfer with documentation
  • D. Mailing hard copies
    Correct answer: C. Electronic transfer with documentation

48. How should medication safety be approached in team-based care?

  • A. As an individual pharmacist task
  • B. Only during pharmacist rounds
  • C. As a shared responsibility across the care team
  • D. With weekly reviews only
    Correct answer: C. As a shared responsibility across the care team

49. What is the best way to handle a medication error once discovered?

  • A. Cover it up
  • B. Delay reporting
  • C. Report it, disclose to the team, and initiate corrective action
  • D. Blame the prescriber
    Correct answer: C. Report it, disclose to the team, and initiate corrective action

50. Involving patients in their own care enhances safety by:

  • A. Confusing them with details
  • B. Limiting autonomy
  • C. Promoting engagement and accountability
  • D. Delegating responsibility
    Correct answer: C. Promoting engagement and accountability

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