The prevention and management of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), also known as STIs, is a critical public health responsibility for every pharmacist. This topic, covered in the PharmD curriculum through modules like “STD Prevention” in Patient Care 5 and the infectious disease principles in Patient Care 2, requires pharmacists to be knowledgeable, non-judgmental educators and clinicians. From counseling on preventative strategies like vaccination to ensuring appropriate, guideline-based treatment for infections like chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis, the pharmacist’s role is vital. This quiz will test your knowledge on the screening, prevention, and pharmacologic management of common STDs.
1. What is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated urogenital Chlamydia trachomatis infection?
- a. A single 1-gram dose of azithromycin or a 7-day course of doxycycline.
- b. A single 2-gram dose of metronidazole.
- c. A 10-day course of amoxicillin.
- d. A single intramuscular dose of penicillin G.
Answer: a. A single 1-gram dose of azithromycin or a 7-day course of doxycycline.
2. The current CDC-recommended treatment for uncomplicated gonococcal infection of the cervix, urethra, and rectum is:
- a. A single oral dose of azithromycin.
- b. A 7-day course of oral ciprofloxacin.
- c. A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone.
- d. A single oral dose of cefixime.
Answer: c. A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone.
3. A painless chancre at the site of infection is the characteristic lesion of which stage of syphilis?
- a. Primary syphilis
- b. Secondary syphilis
- c. Latent syphilis
- d. Tertiary syphilis
Answer: a. Primary syphilis
4. What is the drug of choice for treating all stages of syphilis?
- a. Doxycycline
- b. Ceftriaxone
- c. Azithromycin
- d. Parenteral Penicillin G
Answer: d. Parenteral Penicillin G
5. A patient being treated for syphilis develops a fever, chills, and headache a few hours after receiving their first dose of penicillin. This acute, self-limiting febrile reaction is known as:
- a. Anaphylaxis
- b. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
- c. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
- d. Seroconversion illness
Answer: c. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
6. The “Transcending Concept: Self Care – STD Prevention” is a specific learning module in which course?
- a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
- b. PHA5104 Sterile Compounding
- c. PHA5703 Pharmacy Law and Ethics
- d. PHA5784C Patient Care 4
Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
7. Which of the following is an effective strategy for managing recurrent episodes of genital herpes?
- a. Episodic therapy with an oral antiviral (e.g., acyclovir, valacyclovir) initiated at the first sign of an outbreak.
- b. A single dose of penicillin G.
- c. A topical corticosteroid cream.
- d. Annual vaccination.
Answer: a. Episodic therapy with an oral antiviral (e.g., acyclovir, valacyclovir) initiated at the first sign of an outbreak.
8. Suppressive therapy for genital herpes is intended to:
- a. Cure the HSV infection.
- b. Reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks and decrease the risk of transmission to partners.
- c. Be used only during an active outbreak.
- d. Prevent the acquisition of HPV.
Answer: b. Reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks and decrease the risk of transmission to partners.
9. The Gardasil 9 vaccine provides protection against which of the following?
- a. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) types 1 and 2.
- b. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types associated with genital warts and cancers.
- c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
- d. Chlamydia trachomatis.
Answer: b. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types associated with genital warts and cancers.
10. What is the recommended first-line treatment for trichomoniasis?
- a. A single 2-gram dose of oral metronidazole or tinidazole.
- b. A 7-day course of doxycycline.
- c. A topical antifungal cream.
- d. A single dose of ceftriaxone.
Answer: a. A single 2-gram dose of oral metronidazole or tinidazole.
11. The pharmacology of antimicrobials used to treat STIs is a topic within the Patient Care 2 curriculum.
- a. True
- b. False
Answer: a. True
12. A patient being treated with metronidazole should be counseled to avoid what substance to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction?
- a. Dairy products
- b. Grapefruit juice
- c. Alcohol
- d. Tyramine-containing foods
Answer: c. Alcohol
13. Expedited Partner Therapy (EPT) is the practice of:
- a. Requiring a sexual partner to come to the clinic for a full examination.
- b. Providing a prescription or medication for the partner of a patient diagnosed with an STI without a formal medical evaluation of the partner.
- c. Enrolling partners in a clinical trial.
- d. Notifying a patient’s partner that they have been exposed.
Answer: b. Providing a prescription or medication for the partner of a patient diagnosed with an STI without a formal medical evaluation of the partner.
14. Why is co-treatment for chlamydia often recommended when a patient is diagnosed with gonorrhea?
- a. Because the treatments are the same.
- b. Because of the high rate of co-infection.
- c. To prevent antimicrobial resistance.
- d. To reduce the cost of therapy.
Answer: b. Because of the high rate of co-infection.
15. Counseling patients on the appropriate use of medications for STIs is a key objective for student pharmacists.
- a. True
- b. False
Answer: a. True
16. Which of the following is NOT a bacterial STD?
- a. Syphilis
- b. Gonorrhea
- c. Chlamydia
- d. Genital Herpes
Answer: d. Genital Herpes
17. The management of fungal infections, including Candida which can be sexually transmitted, is a topic in the Patient Care 2 curriculum.
- a. True
- b. False
Answer: a. True
18. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) STD Treatment Guidelines are:
- a. A suggestion that is rarely followed.
- b. An evidence-based resource that provides recommendations for the management of STIs.
- c. A marketing tool for pharmaceutical companies.
- d. A document for patients only.
Answer: b. An evidence-based resource that provides recommendations for the management of a STIs.
19. A key counseling point for a patient taking a single 1-gram dose of azithromycin for chlamydia is:
- a. To take it with a full glass of milk.
- b. To take it on an empty stomach to improve absorption, though it can be taken with food to reduce GI upset.
- c. That it will also cure herpes.
- d. To split the dose over two days.
Answer: b. To take it on an empty stomach to improve absorption, though it can be taken with food to reduce GI upset.
20. An active learning session on STD prevention is part of the Patient Care 5 course.
- a. True
- b. False
Answer: a. True
21. Valacyclovir is a prodrug of which antiviral medication?
- a. Foscarnet
- b. Ganciclovir
- c. Acyclovir
- d. Famciclovir
Answer: c. Acyclovir
22. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is a serious complication that can result from an untreated infection with:
- a. HPV
- b. HSV
- c. Chlamydia and/or Gonorrhea
- d. Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer: c. Chlamydia and/or Gonorrhea
23. The “lecture “Prevention of Sexually Transmitted Infections” is part of which course?
- a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
- b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
- c. PHA5781 Patient Care I
- d. PHA5782C Patient Care 2
Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
24. An active learning session on women’s health is part of which course?
- a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
- b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
- c. PHA5781 Patient Care I
- d. PHA5782C Patient Care 2
Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
25. A key counseling point regarding genital herpes is that:
- a. The virus can be transmitted even when no sores or symptoms are present.
- b. It is a curable infection.
- c. Condoms are 100% effective at preventing transmission.
- d. Once you have one outbreak, you will never have another.
Answer: a. The virus can be transmitted even when no sores or symptoms are present.
26. The most effective way to prevent sexually transmitted infections is:
- a. Douching after intercourse.
- b. Using spermicide alone.
- c. Abstinence or consistent and correct use of barrier methods like condoms.
- d. Taking prophylactic antibiotics.
Answer: c. Abstinence or consistent and correct use of barrier methods like condoms.
27. The dosing regimen for penicillin G to treat syphilis depends on:
- a. The patient’s weight.
- b. The stage and duration of the infection.
- c. The patient’s age.
- d. The patient’s renal function.
Answer: b. The stage and duration of the infection.
28. An active learning session on STIs is part of which course module?
- a. Module 3: Women’s Health
- b. Module 1: Diabetes Mellitus
- c. Module 4: Medication Safety
- d. Module 8: Men’s Health
Answer: a. Module 3: Women’s Health
29. What is the primary role of a pharmacist in STD prevention?
- a. To diagnose STIs.
- b. To act as a non-judgmental, accessible resource for education, prevention, and medication counseling.
- c. To prescribe antibiotics for all STIs.
- d. To perform physical examinations.
Answer: b. To act as a non-judgmental, accessible resource for education, prevention, and medication counseling.
30. The “Self Care – STD Prevention” is a lecture within the Patient Care 5 curriculum.
- a. True
- b. False
Answer: a. True
31. The CDC recommends annual screening for chlamydia and gonorrhea for which population?
- a. All sexually active men over 50.
- b. All sexually active women younger than 25 years.
- c. All postmenopausal women.
- d. All patients, regardless of age or sexual activity.
Answer: b. All sexually active women younger than 25 years.
32. The causative organism for gonorrhea, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, is a:
- a. Gram-positive coccus
- b. Gram-negative coccus
- c. Spirochete
- d. Protozoan
Answer: b. Gram-negative coccus
33. The Gardasil 9 vaccine is recommended for which age groups?
- a. Only females aged 9-12.
- b. Both males and females, routinely at age 11-12, but can be given up to age 26 (or older with shared clinical decision making).
- c. Only individuals over the age of 30.
- d. Only patients with an active HPV infection.
Answer: b. Both males and females, routinely at age 11-12, but can be given up to age 26 (or older with shared clinical decision making).
34. The main reason for the decline in the use of fluoroquinolones for gonorrhea is:
- a. High cost.
- b. Widespread antimicrobial resistance.
- c. Severe side effect profile.
- d. Lack of oral formulation.
Answer: b. Widespread antimicrobial resistance.
35. A patient being treated for trichomoniasis with metronidazole should be advised that their sexual partner(s):
- a. Do not need treatment.
- b. Should also be treated to prevent reinfection.
- c. Should be treated with a different antibiotic.
- d. Only need treatment if they are symptomatic.
Answer: b. Should also be treated to prevent reinfection.
36. A rash on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is a classic sign of:
- a. Primary syphilis
- b. Secondary syphilis
- c. Genital herpes
- d. Gonorrhea
Answer: b. Secondary syphilis
37. Which of the following is a potential long-term consequence of untreated PID?
- a. Infertility and ectopic pregnancy
- b. Chronic pelvic pain
- c. Both a and b
- d. Neither a nor b
Answer: c. Both a and b
38. The “Introduction to Fungal Infections” lecture is part of the Patient Care 2 curriculum.
- a. True
- b. False
Answer: a. True
39. A patient is prescribed Bicillin L-A for latent syphilis. The pharmacist should ensure:
- a. The patient takes it orally.
- b. The correct formulation is used and it is administered via deep intramuscular injection.
- c. It is given as a rapid IV push.
- d. The patient is not allergic to doxycycline.
Answer: b. The correct formulation is used and it is administered via deep intramuscular injection.
40. An active learning session covering STD prevention is part of which course?
- a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
- b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
- c. PHA5781 Patient Care I
- d. PHA5782C Patient Care 2
Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
41. The most effective way for a pharmacist to promote public health regarding STDs is to:
- a. Normalize conversations about sexual health and prevention.
- b. Provide accurate, non-judgmental information.
- c. Encourage and administer vaccinations like the HPV vaccine.
- d. All of the above.
Answer: d. All of the above.
42. Which of the following statements about chlamydia is TRUE?
- a. It is usually symptomatic in women.
- b. It is often asymptomatic in both men and women.
- c. It is a viral infection.
- d. It is treated with penicillin.
Answer: b. It is often asymptomatic in both men and women.
43. A pharmacist counseling a patient on condom use for STD prevention should mention:
- a. Using only oil-based lubricants with latex condoms.
- b. That condoms can be reused.
- c. The importance of using a new condom for every sex act and checking the expiration date.
- d. That “natural skin” condoms protect against STDs as well as latex condoms.
Answer: c. The importance of using a new condom for every sex act and checking the expiration date.
44. A patient diagnosed with an STI should be encouraged to:
- a. Keep it a secret from all partners.
- b. Notify their sexual partners so they can be tested and treated.
- c. Stop all medications.
- d. Only notify past partners, not current ones.
Answer: b. Notify their sexual partners so they can be tested and treated.
45. Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of STD management?
- a. To cure the infection or manage symptoms.
- b. To prevent transmission to others.
- c. To prevent long-term complications.
- d. To ensure the patient feels ashamed.
Answer: d. To ensure the patient feels ashamed.
46. A patient is being treated for gonorrhea. Why might doxycycline be added to their ceftriaxone?
- a. To treat potential co-infection with chlamydia.
- b. To prevent side effects from ceftriaxone.
- c. To treat a fungal infection.
- d. To make the injection less painful.
Answer: a. To treat potential co-infection with chlamydia.
47. The causative organism for syphilis, Treponema pallidum, is a:
- a. Virus
- b. Fungus
- c. Protozoan
- d. Spirochete bacterium
Answer: d. Spirochete bacterium
48. An active learning session on women’s health and STIs is part of which course?
- a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
- b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
- c. PHA5781 Patient Care I
- d. PHA5782C Patient Care 2
Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
49. The management of STDs requires:
- a. A one-size-fits-all approach.
- b. Adherence to current, evidence-based treatment guidelines.
- c. The use of antibiotics for viral infections.
- d. A focus only on treatment, not prevention.
Answer: b. Adherence to current, evidence-based treatment guidelines.
50. The ultimate goal of a pharmacist’s involvement in STD management is to:
- a. Improve public health outcomes by promoting prevention and ensuring safe, effective, and accessible treatment.
- b. Judge a patient’s lifestyle choices.
- c. Sell the most expensive condoms.
- d. Pass the infectious disease exam.
Answer: a. Improve public health outcomes by promoting prevention and ensuring safe, effective, and accessible treatment.