Ophthalmic drug delivery focuses on administering medications to the eye to treat conditions such as infections, glaucoma, inflammation, and dry eye. Dosage forms include solutions, suspensions, ointments, gels, and ocular inserts. The unique anatomy and physiology of the eye present formulation and delivery challenges. This MCQ quiz covers formulation types, pharmacokinetics, ocular barriers, administration techniques, and therapeutic applications—ideal for Pharm.D. students.
1. Which of the following is an ophthalmic dosage form?
- A. Intravenous injection
- B. Oral tablet
- C. Eye drop solution
- D. Rectal suppository
Correct answer: C. Eye drop solution
2. The main anatomical barrier for ophthalmic drug absorption is the:
- A. Retina
- B. Lens
- C. Corneal epithelium
- D. Iris
Correct answer: C. Corneal epithelium
3. Eye drops are most commonly used for:
- A. Skin infections
- B. Eye conditions like conjunctivitis and glaucoma
- C. Ear infections
- D. Nasal congestion
Correct answer: B. Eye conditions like conjunctivitis and glaucoma
4. The volume the conjunctival sac can hold without overflow is approximately:
- A. 0.5 mL
- B. 0.03 mL
- C. 1 mL
- D. 2 mL
Correct answer: B. 0.03 mL
5. The major limitation of eye drops is:
- A. Fast onset
- B. Poor systemic absorption
- C. Rapid drainage and short contact time
- D. High protein binding
Correct answer: C. Rapid drainage and short contact time
6. Which formulation stays in the eye longer than a solution?
- A. Suspension
- B. Ointment
- C. Foam
- D. Tablet
Correct answer: B. Ointment
7. Ocular drug delivery aims to:
- A. Treat systemic infections
- B. Deliver drugs to the skin
- C. Provide local treatment to the anterior segment of the eye
- D. Replace ear drops
Correct answer: C. Provide local treatment to the anterior segment of the eye
8. A major advantage of ophthalmic ointments is:
- A. Immediate vision clarity
- B. Extended contact time
- C. High systemic absorption
- D. Pleasant taste
Correct answer: B. Extended contact time
9. Eye suspensions must be:
- A. Injected
- B. Shaken before use
- C. Heated before application
- D. Inhaled
Correct answer: B. Shaken before use
10. The pH of ophthalmic formulations should be:
- A. 1–2
- B. 7–9
- C. Close to tear fluid pH (~7.4)
- D. Alkaline (>9)
Correct answer: C. Close to tear fluid pH (~7.4)
11. Ophthalmic inserts are:
- A. Oral tablets
- B. Rectal suppositories
- C. Solid or semi-solid dosage forms placed in the conjunctival sac
- D. Eye drops
Correct answer: C. Solid or semi-solid dosage forms placed in the conjunctival sac
12. Which of the following is NOT suitable for ocular drug delivery?
- A. Eye drops
- B. Contact lens-type devices
- C. Injectable gels
- D. Vaginal rings
Correct answer: D. Vaginal rings
13. Which enzyme in tears can degrade ophthalmic drugs?
- A. Pepsin
- B. Lipase
- C. Lysozyme
- D. Amylase
Correct answer: C. Lysozyme
14. Ophthalmic formulations must be:
- A. Hypotonic
- B. Sterile
- C. Injectable
- D. Opaque
Correct answer: B. Sterile
15. Which preservative is commonly used in ophthalmic preparations?
- A. Ethanol
- B. Chlorhexidine
- C. Benzalkonium chloride (BAK)
- D. Formaldehyde
Correct answer: C. Benzalkonium chloride (BAK)
16. Preservative-free formulations are preferred for:
- A. Single-use vials
- B. Long-term therapy
- C. Non-sterile solutions
- D. Oral medications
Correct answer: A. Single-use vials
17. Which class of drugs is commonly used in eye drops for glaucoma?
- A. Antibiotics
- B. Beta-blockers
- C. Antihistamines
- D. Steroids
Correct answer: B. Beta-blockers
18. A major side effect of topical corticosteroids in the eye is:
- A. Hypertension
- B. Cataract formation
- C. Hair loss
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B. Cataract formation
19. For maximum absorption, eye drops should be instilled:
- A. Into the outer eyelid
- B. On the eyeball surface
- C. Into the conjunctival sac
- D. On the eyebrow
Correct answer: C. Into the conjunctival sac
20. The ideal viscosity-enhancing agent for ophthalmic gels is:
- A. Talc
- B. Petrolatum
- C. Carbomer or HPMC
- D. Tween 80
Correct answer: C. Carbomer or HPMC
21. The tear turnover rate in a normal eye is approximately:
- A. 0.1 mL/min
- B. 0.5 mL/min
- C. 1.0 mL/min
- D. 2.0 mL/min
Correct answer: A. 0.1 mL/min
22. A “gel-forming” eye drop becomes viscous upon:
- A. Freezing
- B. Contact with tear fluid
- C. Oral ingestion
- D. High pH
Correct answer: B. Contact with tear fluid
23. Why are ophthalmic solutions preferred over suspensions for initial therapy?
- A. Lower cost
- B. Better appearance
- C. Faster absorption and ease of administration
- D. Longer contact time
Correct answer: C. Faster absorption and ease of administration
24. What is the purpose of a buffering agent in ophthalmic preparations?
- A. Change color
- B. Enhance aroma
- C. Maintain pH for stability and comfort
- D. Increase solubility
Correct answer: C. Maintain pH for stability and comfort
25. The main route for systemic absorption of ophthalmic drugs is via the:
- A. Iris
- B. Sclera
- C. Nasolacrimal duct
- D. Retina
Correct answer: C. Nasolacrimal duct
26. Which ophthalmic formulation is best for overnight use?
- A. Eye drops
- B. Ointments
- C. Solutions
- D. Suspensions
Correct answer: B. Ointments
27. Cycloplegic agents are used in ophthalmology for:
- A. Pain relief
- B. Paralyzing accommodation during eye exams
- C. Antifungal activity
- D. Lowering IOP
Correct answer: B. Paralyzing accommodation during eye exams
28. Artificial tears are used to treat:
- A. Cataracts
- B. Dry eye syndrome
- C. Conjunctivitis
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: B. Dry eye syndrome
29. Prolonged use of ophthalmic steroids can lead to:
- A. Tooth discoloration
- B. Glaucoma and increased intraocular pressure
- C. Migraine
- D. Seizures
Correct answer: B. Glaucoma and increased intraocular pressure
30. Which of the following eye conditions is treated with timolol drops?
- A. Retinitis pigmentosa
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Cataract
- D. Macular degeneration
Correct answer: B. Glaucoma
31. Eye drop instillation should be followed by:
- A. Drinking water
- B. Nasal spray
- C. Nasolacrimal occlusion for 1–2 minutes
- D. Immediate eye rubbing
Correct answer: C. Nasolacrimal occlusion for 1–2 minutes
32. The risk of systemic side effects from eye drops can be reduced by:
- A. Increasing dose
- B. Swallowing the drops
- C. Applying digital pressure to nasolacrimal duct
- D. Using two drops at once
Correct answer: C. Applying digital pressure to nasolacrimal duct
33. Multidose ophthalmic products should contain:
- A. Buffers
- B. Viscosity enhancers
- C. Preservatives
- D. Enzymes
Correct answer: C. Preservatives
34. Ophthalmic suspensions offer which advantage over solutions?
- A. Faster onset
- B. Prolonged drug release
- C. Lower dose
- D. Easier administration
Correct answer: B. Prolonged drug release
35. The posterior segment of the eye includes the:
- A. Conjunctiva
- B. Cornea
- C. Retina and vitreous humor
- D. Iris
Correct answer: C. Retina and vitreous humor
36. Drug delivery to the posterior segment is often achieved by:
- A. Eye drops
- B. Ointments
- C. Intravitreal injection
- D. Oral tablets
Correct answer: C. Intravitreal injection
37. The term “mydriatic” refers to a drug that:
- A. Lowers blood pressure
- B. Dilates the pupil
- C. Reduces tear production
- D. Contracts the iris
Correct answer: B. Dilates the pupil
38. Which eye condition involves increased intraocular pressure?
- A. Conjunctivitis
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Uveitis
- D. Cataract
Correct answer: B. Glaucoma
39. The optimal drop size for ocular administration is approximately:
- A. 0.1 mL
- B. 0.03 mL
- C. 1.0 mL
- D. 5.0 mL
Correct answer: B. 0.03 mL
40. Which of the following is contraindicated in fungal eye infections?
- A. Natamycin
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Prednisolone acetate
- D. Amphotericin B
Correct answer: C. Prednisolone acetate
41. What is the typical shelf life of unopened ophthalmic solutions?
- A. 1 week
- B. 1 month
- C. 1–2 years
- D. 6 months
Correct answer: C. 1–2 years
42. Which of the following is used to stain the cornea for diagnostic purposes?
- A. Tropicamide
- B. Fluorescein sodium
- C. Brimonidine
- D. Cyclopentolate
Correct answer: B. Fluorescein sodium
43. Which ophthalmic antibiotic is safe in infants?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Gentamicin
- C. Erythromycin ointment
- D. Tetracycline drops
Correct answer: C. Erythromycin ointment
44. Eye drops should be stored:
- A. In the freezer
- B. In direct sunlight
- C. According to label instructions, often in a cool, dry place
- D. On a radiator
Correct answer: C. According to label instructions, often in a cool, dry place
45. Ultimately, ophthalmic drug delivery is designed to:
- A. Replace systemic antibiotics
- B. Provide targeted ocular therapy while minimizing systemic exposure
- C. Treat skin diseases
- D. Improve hearing
Correct answer: B. Provide targeted ocular therapy while minimizing systemic exposure
46. Which of the following is used for local anesthesia in eye procedures?
- A. Tetracaine
- B. Pilocarpine
- C. Timolol
- D. Tropicamide
Correct answer: A. Tetracaine
47. Which ophthalmic agent is used as a diagnostic to assess tear production?
- A. Atropine
- B. Schirmer strip
- C. Pilocarpine
- D. Brimonidine
Correct answer: B. Schirmer strip
48. Ophthalmic ointments are best applied:
- A. On the eyelid
- B. Over the cornea
- C. Into the lower conjunctival sac
- D. In the ear canal
Correct answer: C. Into the lower conjunctival sac
49. A common preservative-related side effect in ophthalmic products is:
- A. Blurred vision
- B. Ocular surface irritation
- C. Increased intraocular pressure
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: B. Ocular surface irritation
50. Which formulation can offer controlled release over several hours or days in the eye?
- A. Solution
- B. Suspension
- C. Ocular insert
- D. Gel drop
Correct answer: C. Ocular insert