MCQ Quiz: Men’s Health

Men’s health is a significant area of pharmacotherapy, encompassing common urological and endocrine conditions that impact quality of life, such as Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) and Erectile Dysfunction (ED). Pharmacists, guided by the knowledge in the “Urological Disorders” module of the Patient Care 5 curriculum, are essential in managing the complex medication regimens for these conditions. This quiz will test your knowledge on the pathophysiology and pharmacologic management of BPH, ED, and testosterone deficiency.

1. A patient complains of urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, and a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. These are classic _____ symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH).

  • a. Irritative
  • b. Obstructive
  • c. Systemic
  • d. Inflammatory

Answer: b. Obstructive

2. Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists like tamsulosin work to improve BPH symptoms by:

  • a. Shrinking the size of the prostate gland.
  • b. Relaxing the smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck.
  • c. Inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to DHT.
  • d. Blocking muscarinic receptors.

Answer: b. Relaxing the smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck.

3. What is the primary mechanism of action for PDE-5 inhibitors like sildenafil in treating erectile dysfunction?

  • a. They directly cause an erection without stimulation.
  • b. They increase testosterone levels.
  • c. They inhibit the breakdown of cGMP, promoting smooth muscle relaxation and blood flow into the corpus cavernosum.
  • d. They block alpha-1 receptors.

Answer: c. They inhibit the breakdown of cGMP, promoting smooth muscle relaxation and blood flow into the corpus cavernosum.

4. The concurrent use of a PDE-5 inhibitor and which of the following medications is absolutely contraindicated due to the risk of severe hypotension?

  • a. An ACE inhibitor
  • b. A statin
  • c. An organic nitrate (e.g., nitroglycerin)
  • d. A beta-blocker

Answer: c. An organic nitrate (e.g., nitroglycerin)

5. Finasteride and dutasteride are 5-alpha reductase inhibitors that treat BPH by:

  • a. Relaxing the prostate smooth muscle.
  • b. Blocking the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which shrinks the prostate.
  • c. Acting as a diuretic.
  • d. Improving erectile function.

Answer: b. Blocking the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which shrinks the prostate.

6. The “Management of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia” is a specific lecture in which course?

  • a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
  • b. PHA5104 Sterile Compounding
  • c. PHA5703 Pharmacy Law and Ethics
  • d. PHA5878C Patient Care 3

Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5

7. A common side effect of non-selective alpha-1 blockers like terazosin and doxazosin is:

  • a. Hypertension
  • b. Tachycardia
  • c. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness
  • d. Insomnia

Answer: c. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness

8. How long does it typically take for a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor to show a significant effect on BPH symptoms?

  • a. Within 24 hours
  • b. 1-2 weeks
  • c. Up to 6 months
  • d. It works immediately.

Answer: c. Up to 6 months

9. Testosterone replacement therapy (TRT) is indicated for patients with:

  • a. Normal testosterone levels who want to build muscle.
  • b. BPH
  • c. Symptomatic hypogonadism confirmed by low morning testosterone levels.
  • d. Erectile dysfunction with normal testosterone levels.

Answer: c. Symptomatic hypogonadism confirmed by low morning testosterone levels.

10. Which of the following is a potential risk of testosterone replacement therapy?

  • a. Worsening of BPH symptoms.
  • b. Polycythemia (increased hematocrit).
  • c. Potential for cardiovascular risk.
  • d. All of the above.

Answer: d. All of the above.

11. The management of erectile dysfunction is a topic within the Patient Care 5 curriculum.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

12. A patient taking sildenafil should be counseled that a fatty meal can:

  • a. Increase its effectiveness.
  • b. Delay its onset of action.
  • c. Cause a dangerous drug interaction.
  • d. Make the side effects worse.

Answer: b. Delay its onset of action.

13. Which PDE-5 inhibitor is known for its long duration of action (up to 36 hours)?

  • a. Sildenafil
  • b. Vardenafil
  • c. Avanafil
  • d. Tadalafil

Answer: d. Tadalafil

14. A key counseling point for a patient using a topical testosterone gel is:

  • a. To apply it to the genital area.
  • b. To ensure the application site is covered to prevent transference to women or children.
  • c. That it only needs to be applied once a week.
  • d. To apply it right before showering.

Answer: b. To ensure the application site is covered to prevent transference to women or children.

15. Counseling patients on the appropriate use of medications and devices is a key objective for student pharmacists.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

16. Which alpha-blocker is considered “uroselective” and has less effect on blood pressure?

  • a. Doxazosin
  • b. Terazosin
  • c. Tamsulosin
  • d. Prazosin

Answer: c. Tamsulosin

17. “Self-care: Men’s Health (Alopecia, Fungal Infections)” is a lecture within the Patient Care 5 curriculum.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

18. What is the primary active ingredient in OTC Rogaine, used for androgenetic alopecia?

  • a. Finasteride
  • b. Dutasteride
  • c. Minoxidil
  • d. Ketoconazole

Answer: c. Minoxidil

19. A patient using topical minoxidil for hair loss should be counseled that:

  • a. They will see results within one week.
  • b. It may take several months to see an effect, and the effect stops if the product is discontinued.
  • c. It should be applied only once a week.
  • d. The foam is less effective than the solution.

Answer: b. It may take several months to see an effect, and the effect stops if the product is discontinued.

20. An active learning session on urological disorders is part of the Patient Care 5 course.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

21. A patient taking a PDE-5 inhibitor experiences an erection lasting more than 4 hours. The pharmacist should advise them that this condition, priapism, is:

  • a. A sign the medication is working well.
  • b. A common, harmless side effect.
  • c. A medical emergency requiring immediate attention.
  • d. Something that can be treated by taking another dose.

Answer: c. A medical emergency requiring immediate attention.

22. Finasteride at a 1 mg dose (Propecia) is used to treat ______, while the 5 mg dose (Proscar) is used to treat ______.

  • a. BPH, Alopecia
  • b. Alopecia, BPH
  • c. ED, BPH
  • d. BPH, ED

Answer: b. Alopecia, BPH

23. The “Introduction to Urological Disorders” lecture is part of the Patient Care 5 curriculum.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

24. An active learning session on men’s health is part of which course?

  • a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
  • b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
  • c. PHA5781 Patient Care I
  • d. PHA5782C Patient Care 2

Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5

25. A common side effect associated with 5-alpha reductase inhibitors like finasteride is:

  • a. Increased libido and erectile dysfunction.
  • b. Decreased libido and erectile dysfunction.
  • c. Hypertension.
  • d. Insomnia.

Answer: b. Decreased libido and erectile dysfunction.

26. Tadalafil 5 mg once daily is FDA-approved for the treatment of:

  • a. ED only
  • b. BPH only
  • c. Both ED and BPH
  • d. Hypertension

Answer: c. Both ED and BPH

27. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery should inform their ophthalmologist if they are taking which BPH medication due to the risk of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome?

  • a. Finasteride
  • b. Tamsulosin
  • c. Dutasteride
  • d. Tadalafil

Answer: b. Tamsulosin

28. An active learning session on urological disorders is part of which course module?

  • a. Module 8: Urological Disorders
  • b. Module 1: Diabetes Mellitus
  • c. Module 3: Women’s Health
  • d. Module 6: Geriatrics

Answer: a. Module 8: Urological Disorders

29. PDE-5 inhibitors require what to be effective?

  • a. An empty stomach
  • b. Sexual stimulation
  • c. A low-fat diet
  • d. A full glass of water

Answer: b. Sexual stimulation

30. The “Management of Testosterone Deficiency” is a lecture within the Patient Care 5 curriculum.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

31. Which of the following is NOT a typical “irritative” symptom of BPH?

  • a. Urinary frequency
  • b. Urgency
  • c. Nocturia
  • d. A weak urinary stream

Answer: d. A weak urinary stream

32. A pharmacist’s role in managing men’s health includes:

  • a. Counseling on proper medication use and side effects.
  • b. Screening for drug interactions and contraindications.
  • c. Recommending appropriate self-care products.
  • d. All of the above.

Answer: d. All of the above.

33. The onset of action for an alpha-blocker for BPH is typically:

  • a. Within days to weeks.
  • b. 6 months.
  • c. 1 year.
  • d. Immediate.

Answer: a. Within days to weeks.

34. A patient using a testosterone patch should be counseled to:

  • a. Apply it to the scrotum.
  • b. Rotate application sites daily.
  • c. Apply a new patch every hour.
  • d. Use the same site every time.

Answer: b. Rotate application sites daily.

35. A patient taking tadalafil for ED complains of back pain and myalgias. The pharmacist should recognize this as:

  • a. An allergic reaction.
  • b. A known, common side effect of tadalafil.
  • c. A sign of a serious cardiovascular event.
  • d. A reason to double the dose.

Answer: b. A known, common side effect of tadalafil.

36. A patient taking sildenafil reports seeing a blue tinge to their vision. This is a side effect related to the drug’s cross-inhibition of which enzyme?

  • a. PDE-6
  • b. PDE-11
  • c. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
  • d. COX-2

Answer: a. PDE-6

37. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing erectile dysfunction?

  • a. Diabetes
  • b. Hypertension
  • c. Atherosclerosis
  • d. All of the above

Answer: d. All of the above

38. The lecture “Management of Erectile Dysfunction” is part of which course?

  • a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
  • b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
  • c. PHA5781 Patient Care I
  • d. PHA5782C Patient Care 2

Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5

39. Testosterone replacement therapy can cause which of the following lab abnormalities?

  • a. Anemia
  • b. A decrease in PSA.
  • c. An increase in hematocrit (polycythemia).
  • d. A decrease in LDL cholesterol.

Answer: c. An increase in hematocrit (polycythemia).

40. An active learning session covering urological disorders is part of which course?

  • a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5
  • b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
  • c. PHA5781 Patient Care I
  • d. PHA5782C Patient Care 2

Answer: a. PHA5787C Patient Care 5

41. Alprostadil is a synthetic version of ______ that can be used for ED.

  • a. Prostaglandin E1
  • b. Nitric oxide
  • c. Testosterone
  • d. Dopamine

Answer: a. Prostaglandin E1

42. Which of the following is NOT a first-line therapy for BPH?

  • a. Alpha-blockers
  • b. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
  • c. Watchful waiting for mild symptoms.
  • d. Surgery

Answer: d. Surgery

43. A key counseling point for a patient starting a non-selective alpha-blocker is:

  • a. It will shrink the prostate.
  • b. It may cause a significant drop in blood pressure with the first dose, so it should be taken at bedtime.
  • c. It will take 6 months to work.
  • d. It has no side effects.

Answer: b. It may cause a significant drop in blood pressure with the first dose, so it should be taken at bedtime.

44. The American Urological Association (AUA) Symptom Score is used to:

  • a. Diagnose prostate cancer.
  • b. Assess the severity of BPH symptoms.
  • c. Choose a specific PDE-5 inhibitor.
  • d. Monitor testosterone levels.

Answer: b. Assess the severity of BPH symptoms.

45. Which of the following lifestyle modifications can help with BPH symptoms?

  • a. Increasing caffeine and alcohol intake.
  • b. Restricting fluids, especially before bedtime.
  • c. Taking over-the-counter decongestants.
  • d. A sedentary lifestyle.

Answer: b. Restricting fluids, especially before bedtime.

46. A patient must be counseled that finasteride is teratogenic and pregnant women should not even handle crushed or broken tablets.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

47. The “Self-care for Men’s Health Issues” lecture is part of the Patient Care 5 curriculum.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

48. An active learning session on urological disorders is part of which course module?

  • a. Module 8: Urological Disorders
  • b. Module 1: Diabetes Mellitus
  • c. Module 4: Medication Safety
  • d. Module 6: Geriatrics

Answer: a. Module 8: Urological Disorders

49. The overall management of men’s health disorders like BPH and ED requires:

  • a. A “one-size-fits-all” approach.
  • b. An individualized treatment plan based on symptom severity, patient comorbidities, and shared decision-making.
  • c. The use of surgery as the first option.
  • d. A focus on herbal remedies only.

Answer: b. An individualized treatment plan based on symptom severity, patient comorbidities, and shared decision-making.

50. The ultimate goal of learning about the management of men’s health is to:

  • a. Be able to recommend the correct, evidence-based therapy to improve a patient’s quality of life safely and effectively.
  • b. Memorize all the brand names for PDE-5 inhibitors.
  • c. Pass the final exam.
  • d. Convince every male patient they need testosterone replacement.

Answer: a. Be able to recommend the correct, evidence-based therapy to improve a patient’s quality of life safely and effectively.

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