MCQ Quiz: Individualized Dosing of Antibiotics

Effective antimicrobial therapy is far more nuanced than simply selecting a drug from a list. The modern pharmacist knows that individualized dosing is critical to maximizing efficacy while minimizing toxicity. Tailoring antibiotic regimens based on patient-specific parameters, pharmacokinetic (PK) principles, and pharmacodynamic (PD) targets is a core responsibility of the pharmacy profession. This skill is honed throughout the PharmD curriculum, from foundational courses like Principles of Drug Therapy Individualization (PHA5132) to hands-on labs like Professional Skills Lab 3 (PHA5163L), where dosing complex drugs like vancomycin and aminoglycosides is practiced. This quiz will test your ability to apply these critical principles to ensure every patient receives a safe and effective, individualized antibiotic dose.

1. The pharmacodynamic parameter that best predicts the efficacy of vancomycin is:

  • a. Cmax/MIC
  • b. T > MIC
  • c. AUC/MIC
  • d. The post-antibiotic effect

Answer: c. AUC/MIC

2. For which class of antibiotics is time-dependent killing (T > MIC) the most important pharmacodynamic parameter?

  • a. Aminoglycosides
  • b. Beta-lactams
  • c. Fluoroquinolones
  • d. Daptomycin

Answer: b. Beta-lactams

3. When dosing aminoglycosides using the extended-interval (once-daily) method, what is the primary goal?

  • a. To keep the drug concentration above the MIC for the entire dosing interval.
  • b. To achieve a high peak concentration (Cmax) well above the MIC to take advantage of concentration-dependent killing.
  • c. To maintain a steady-state concentration.
  • d. To minimize the volume of distribution.

Answer: b. To achieve a high peak concentration (Cmax) well above the MIC to take advantage of concentration-dependent killing.

4. A pharmacist is asked to recommend an appropriate individualized dosing regimen for vancomycin. This is a key learning objective in which course?

  • a. PHA5781 Patient Care 1
  • b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3
  • c. PHA5104 Sterile Compounding
  • d. PHA5439 Principles of Medicinal Chemistry and Pharmacology I

Answer: b. PHA5163L Professional Skills Lab 3

5. According to current guidelines for serious MRSA infections, what is the target AUC/MIC ratio for vancomycin?

  • a. >125
  • b. 200-300
  • c. 400-600
  • d. >1000

Answer: c. 400-600

6. Which of the following patient-specific parameters is essential for calculating an initial vancomycin or aminoglycoside dose?

  • a. Hair color
  • b. Blood type
  • c. Renal function (e.g., creatinine clearance)
  • d. Past surgical history

Answer: c. Renal function (e.g., creatinine clearance)

7. The post-antibiotic effect (PAE), where bacterial growth remains suppressed even after the drug concentration falls below the MIC, is a prominent feature of which antibiotic class?

  • a. Penicillins
  • b. Cephalosporins
  • c. Macrolides
  • d. Aminoglycosides

Answer: d. Aminoglycosides

8. The Hartford nomogram is a tool used for monitoring which type of antibiotic dosing?

  • a. Traditional vancomycin dosing
  • b. Extended-interval aminoglycoside dosing
  • c. Oral beta-lactam dosing
  • d. Once-daily linezolid dosing

Answer: b. Extended-interval aminoglycoside dosing

9. Aminoglycosides exhibit concentration-dependent killing. This means:

  • a. The duration of exposure is more important than the dose.
  • b. The rate and extent of bacterial killing increase as the peak drug concentration increases relative to the MIC.
  • c. The drug is only effective at a single, specific concentration.
  • d. The drug’s efficacy depends on the patient’s serum albumin level.

Answer: b. The rate and extent of bacterial killing increase as the peak drug concentration increases relative to the MIC.

10. When dosing a renally-eliminated antibiotic in a patient with chronic kidney disease, what adjustment is most commonly made?

  • a. Increasing the dose.
  • b. Decreasing the dose or extending the dosing interval.
  • c. Switching to an IV formulation.
  • d. Administering the drug with food.

Answer: b. Decreasing the dose or extending the dosing interval.

11. The Cockcroft-Gault equation is commonly used by pharmacists to estimate:

  • a. Hepatic clearance
  • b. Volume of distribution
  • c. Creatinine clearance
  • d. Minimum inhibitory concentration

Answer: c. Creatinine clearance

12. A major toxicity associated with long-term or high-dose aminoglycoside therapy is:

  • a. Hepatotoxicity
  • b. Cardiotoxicity
  • c. Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity
  • d. Pulmonary fibrosis

Answer: c. Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity

13. Historically, vancomycin dosing was adjusted to target a specific trough concentration. Why has the focus shifted to AUC/MIC monitoring?

  • a. Trough monitoring was found to be a poor predictor of efficacy and is more strongly linked to nephrotoxicity than AUC.
  • b. AUC/MIC monitoring is cheaper.
  • c. Drawing trough levels is more difficult than drawing AUC levels.
  • d. Trough goals were consistently too low.

Answer: a. Trough monitoring was found to be a poor predictor of efficacy and is more strongly linked to nephrotoxicity than AUC.

14. Which patient weight should be used to calculate the vancomycin dose for most obese patients?

  • a. Ideal body weight
  • b. Adjusted body weight
  • c. Total body weight
  • d. Lean body weight

Answer: c. Total body weight

15. A loading dose of vancomycin is sometimes given to:

  • a. Decrease the risk of toxicity.
  • b. Achieve the target therapeutic concentration more rapidly in seriously ill patients.
  • c. Test for an allergic reaction.
  • d. Reduce the cost of therapy.

Answer: b. Achieve the target therapeutic concentration more rapidly in seriously ill patients.

16. The ability to recommend antibiotic therapy based on patient-specific parameters like kidney function and culture data is a key student objective.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

17. For a patient on intermittent hemodialysis, when should a dose of a dialyzable antibiotic like gentamicin typically be administered?

  • a. Immediately before a dialysis session.
  • b. During the dialysis session.
  • c. After a dialysis session.
  • d. The timing does not matter.

Answer: c. After a dialysis session.

18. What does “MIC” stand for in the context of antibiotic therapy?

  • a. Maximum Inhibitory Concentration
  • b. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
  • c. Mean Infusion Concentration
  • d. Metabolic Induction Capacity

Answer: b. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration

19. When using the Hartford nomogram, a random drug level is drawn how many hours after the start of the aminoglycoside infusion?

  • a. 2-4 hours
  • b. 6-14 hours
  • c. 18-24 hours
  • d. 30 minutes before the next dose

Answer: b. 6-14 hours

20. A patient’s vancomycin trough level comes back higher than the goal range. The most appropriate action is to:

  • a. Increase the dose.
  • b. Decrease the frequency (extend the interval) or decrease the dose.
  • c. Continue the current regimen and recheck in 48 hours.
  • d. Switch to a different antibiotic immediately.

Answer: b. Decrease the frequency (extend the interval) or decrease the dose.

21. The two main pharmacokinetic parameters that determine a drug’s half-life are:

  • a. Absorption rate and MIC
  • b. Volume of distribution and Clearance
  • c. Peak and Trough
  • d. Dose and frequency

Answer: b. Volume of distribution and Clearance

22. Which antibiotic class is associated with the “Red Man Syndrome” infusion reaction?

  • a. Fluoroquinolones
  • b. Aminoglycosides
  • c. Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)
  • d. Macrolides

Answer: c. Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)

23. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) is most necessary for drugs with a:

  • a. Wide therapeutic index and predictable dose-response.
  • b. Narrow therapeutic index and significant pharmacokinetic variability.
  • c. Low risk of toxicity.
  • d. Short half-life.

Answer: b. Narrow therapeutic index and significant pharmacokinetic variability.

24. The volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug describes:

  • a. The rate at which the drug is eliminated from the body.
  • b. The theoretical volume that would be necessary to contain the total amount of an administered drug at the same concentration that it is observed in the blood plasma.
  • c. The drug’s ability to kill bacteria.
  • d. The drug’s protein binding percentage.

Answer: b. The theoretical volume that would be necessary to contain the total amount of an administered drug at the same concentration that it is observed in the blood plasma.

25. A patient with a CrCl of 25 mL/min needs to be started on an antibiotic that is 90% renally eliminated. The standard dose is 500 mg every 8 hours. Which is the most appropriate initial adjustment?

  • a. 500 mg every 6 hours
  • b. 1000 mg every 8 hours
  • c. 500 mg every 24 hours
  • d. No dose adjustment is needed.

Answer: c. 500 mg every 24 hours

26. Individualizing the dose of aminoglycosides is an objective in the Professional Skills Lab.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

27. For time-dependent antibiotics like piperacillin-tazobactam, what dosing strategy can be used to maximize T > MIC, especially for organisms with high MICs?

  • a. Giving a larger dose once a day.
  • b. Administering the drug as a continuous or extended infusion.
  • c. Giving the drug with a high-fat meal.
  • d. Administering the dose as a rapid IV push.

Answer: b. Administering the drug as a continuous or extended infusion.

28. Why is it difficult to create a standard formula for antibiotic dose adjustments in patients with hepatic impairment?

  • a. Liver function is not important for drug elimination.
  • b. All antibiotics are eliminated by the kidneys.
  • c. There is no single lab value that accurately reflects the liver’s overall metabolic capacity, unlike CrCl for the kidneys.
  • d. The liver can regenerate, so adjustments are never needed.

Answer: c. There is no single lab value that accurately reflects the liver’s overall metabolic capacity, unlike CrCl for the kidneys.

29. The Child-Pugh score is used to assess the severity of:

  • a. Renal dysfunction
  • b. Cardiac failure
  • c. Liver disease
  • d. Acute infection

Answer: c. Liver disease

30. Which of the following is an example of a concentration-dependent antibiotic?

  • a. Penicillin G
  • b. Ceftriaxone
  • c. Levofloxacin
  • d. Clindamycin

Answer: c. Levofloxacin

31. A pharmacist calculates a vancomycin maintenance dose. The calculation relies on which two patient-specific pharmacokinetic parameters?

  • a. Patient’s age and height
  • b. Patient’s estimated vancomycin clearance and volume of distribution
  • c. Patient’s serum albumin and bilirubin
  • d. Patient’s temperature and blood pressure

Answer: b. Patient’s estimated vancomycin clearance and volume of distribution

32. Attaining a steady state concentration for a drug generally takes how many half-lives?

  • a. 1-2
  • b. 3-5
  • c. 7-10
  • d. More than 10

Answer: b. 3-5

33. When should a trough level for vancomycin or traditional aminoglycosides be drawn?

  • a. Immediately after the dose is given.
  • b. 2 hours after the infusion ends.
  • c. Immediately before the next scheduled dose (usually the 4th dose).
  • d. At a random time during the day.

Answer: c. Immediately before the next scheduled dose (usually the 4th dose).

34. The term “clearance” in pharmacokinetics refers to:

  • a. The time it takes for the drug concentration to decrease by half.
  • b. The theoretical volume of fluid cleared of a drug per unit of time.
  • c. The amount of drug in the body.
  • d. The drug’s binding affinity to plasma proteins.

Answer: b. The theoretical volume of fluid cleared of a drug per unit of time.

35. A patient has a Staph aureus infection with a vancomycin MIC of 2 mcg/mL. This is clinically significant because:

  • a. It is very easy to treat this infection.
  • b. It is difficult to achieve the target AUC/MIC of 400-600 without risking nephrotoxicity, and alternative agents should be considered.
  • c. Vancomycin is not active against Staph aureus.
  • d. This MIC indicates the infection is actually MSSA.

Answer: b. It is difficult to achieve the target AUC/MIC of 400-600 without risking nephrotoxicity, and alternative agents should be considered.

36. Dosing in special patient populations is a key concept for drug individualization.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

37. When dosing an aminoglycoside in an obese patient, which weight is typically used to calculate the dose?

  • a. Total body weight
  • b. Ideal body weight
  • c. Adjusted body weight
  • d. The weight does not matter.

Answer: c. Adjusted body weight

38. The goal of drawing a peak level for traditionally-dosed aminoglycosides is to assess:

  • a. The risk of nephrotoxicity.
  • b. The drug’s distribution.
  • c. The adequacy of the dose for achieving bactericidal concentrations.
  • d. The patient’s adherence.

Answer: c. The adequacy of the dose for achieving bactericidal concentrations.

39. For a highly protein-bound antibiotic, a decrease in a patient’s serum albumin may lead to:

  • a. A decrease in the free (active) fraction of the drug.
  • b. An increase in the free (active) fraction of the drug, potentially increasing its effect and toxicity.
  • c. No change in the drug’s activity.
  • d. A decrease in the drug’s half-life.

Answer: b. An increase in the free (active) fraction of the drug, potentially increasing its effect and toxicity.

40. A time-dependent antibiotic is most effective when the drug concentration is maintained:

  • a. As high as possible for a short time.
  • b. Below the MIC.
  • c. Above the MIC for a significant portion of the dosing interval.
  • d. At a constant level equal to the peak.

Answer: c. Above the MIC for a significant portion of the dosing interval.

41. The primary mechanism of vancomycin toxicity is:

  • a. Cardiotoxicity
  • b. Hepatotoxicity
  • c. Nephrotoxicity
  • d. Neurotoxicity

Answer: c. Nephrotoxicity

42. Which of the following equations is used to calculate a drug’s half-life (t1/2)?

  • a. t1/2 = 0.693 / ke
  • b. t1/2 = Vd * ke
  • c. t1/2 = Dose / AUC
  • d. t1/2 = 0.5 * Cmax

Answer: a. t1/2 = 0.693 / ke

43. A patient’s culture and sensitivity report is crucial for individualized antibiotic therapy because it:

  • a. Provides the definitive identity of the infecting organism and its susceptibility (MIC) to various antibiotics.
  • b. Determines the patient’s renal function.
  • c. Lists the patient’s medication allergies.
  • d. Shows the patient’s insurance information.

Answer: a. Provides the definitive identity of the infecting organism and its susceptibility (MIC) to various antibiotics.

44. What is a key reason for using extended-interval dosing for aminoglycosides?

  • a. It is more expensive than traditional dosing.
  • b. It takes advantage of the drug’s concentration-dependent killing and PAE while potentially reducing nephrotoxicity by providing a longer drug-free interval.
  • c. It is less effective than traditional dosing.
  • d. It requires more frequent blood draws.

Answer: b. It takes advantage of the drug’s concentration-dependent killing and PAE while potentially reducing nephrotoxicity by providing a longer drug-free interval.

45. If you need to calculate a new vancomycin dose using two steady-state levels (e.g., a peak and a trough), you are using which method?

  • a. A population kinetics model
  • b. A Bayesian model
  • c. A patient-specific pharmacokinetic parameter model
  • d. The Hartford nomogram

Answer: c. A patient-specific pharmacokinetic parameter model

46. Which of the following drugs requires the most intensive therapeutic drug monitoring in the hospital setting?

  • a. Amoxicillin
  • b. Azithromycin
  • c. Vancomycin
  • d. Cephalexin

Answer: c. Vancomycin

47. The term “empiric therapy” refers to:

  • a. Antibiotic therapy directed at a known pathogen.
  • b. Antibiotic therapy initiated based on the most likely pathogens before culture results are available.
  • c. Antibiotic therapy that has been proven ineffective.
  • d. Non-prescription antibiotic therapy.

Answer: b. Antibiotic therapy initiated based on the most likely pathogens before culture results are available.

48. Why would a loading dose for a drug with a long half-life be beneficial?

  • a. It allows the drug to be eliminated faster.
  • b. It reduces the time required to reach steady-state concentrations.
  • c. It decreases the volume of distribution.
  • d. It increases the drug’s clearance.

Answer: b. It reduces the time required to reach steady-state concentrations.

49. For beta-lactam antibiotics, a common pharmacodynamic target is for the free drug concentration to be above the MIC for what percentage of the dosing interval?

  • a. 10-20%
  • b. 40-70%
  • c. 90-100%
  • d. The percentage does not matter.

Answer: b. 40-70%

50. The ultimate goal of individualized antibiotic dosing is to:

  • a. Use the most expensive antibiotic available.
  • b. Give every patient the same standard dose.
  • c. Optimize clinical outcomes for the patient while minimizing the risks of toxicity and the development of resistance.
  • d. Complete the TDM process as quickly as possible.

Answer: c. Optimize clinical outcomes for the patient while minimizing the risks of toxicity and the development of resistance. Sources

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