MCQ Quiz: Cardiovascular Care in the Community: Anticoagulation

Managing anticoagulation therapy in the community setting is one of the most critical and high-impact responsibilities of a pharmacist. These high-risk medications, essential for preventing strokes in patients with atrial fibrillation and treating venous thromboembolism, require meticulous oversight to ensure patient safety. As a PharmD student, your curriculum is designed to build deep expertise in this area, from defending therapeutic plans in Patient Care 3 to mastering the nuances of warfarin and other anticoagulants in the Professional Skills Lab 3. This quiz will test your knowledge on the practical, community-based management of these vital therapies, focusing on patient counseling, drug interactions, and evidence-based decision-making.

1. What is the primary goal of anticoagulation therapy in a patient with non-valvular atrial fibrillation?

  • a. To lower blood pressure.
  • b. To prevent ischemic stroke.
  • c. To dissolve existing coronary plaques.
  • d. To control the patient’s heart rate.

Answer: b. To prevent ischemic stroke.

2. The standard therapeutic INR (International Normalized Ratio) range for a patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation is:

  • a. 1.0 – 1.5
  • b. 1.5 – 2.5
  • c. 2.0 – 3.0
  • d. 2.5 – 3.5

Answer: c. 2.0 – 3.0

3. Which of the following is a direct factor Xa inhibitor?

  • a. Dabigatran
  • b. Warfarin
  • c. Apixaban
  • d. Unfractionated heparin

Answer: c. Apixaban

4. A patient on warfarin calls the pharmacy stating they ate a large spinach salad for lunch yesterday, which they normally do not eat. What effect would this likely have on their INR?

  • a. Increase the INR.
  • b. Decrease the INR.
  • c. No effect on the INR.
  • d. Cause the INR to fluctuate unpredictably.

Answer: b. Decrease the INR.

5. The CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is used to assess what in patients with atrial fibrillation?

  • a. Bleeding risk.
  • b. Stroke risk.
  • c. Risk of heart failure.
  • d. Risk of medication non-adherence.

Answer: b. Stroke risk.

6. Which of the following is a major advantage of Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs) compared to warfarin?

  • a. They are significantly less expensive.
  • b. They have a wider therapeutic window and do not require routine INR monitoring.
  • c. They have no risk of bleeding.
  • d. They have no drug interactions.

Answer: b. They have a wider therapeutic window and do not require routine INR monitoring.

7. A patient stabilized on warfarin is prescribed a new course of amiodarone. The pharmacist should anticipate the need to:

  • a. Increase the warfarin dose.
  • b. Decrease the warfarin dose due to a significant drug interaction.
  • c. Discontinue warfarin therapy.
  • d. Monitor the patient’s aPTT instead of INR.

Answer: b. Decrease the warfarin dose due to a significant drug interaction.

8. The ability to recommend an appropriate individualized dosing regimen for warfarin is a key learning objective.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

9. Which DOAC should be taken with food to ensure adequate absorption?

  • a. Dabigatran
  • b. Apixaban
  • c. Edoxaban
  • d. Rivaroxaban (doses ≥15 mg)

Answer: d. Rivaroxaban (doses ≥15 mg)

10. What is the most critical counseling point for a patient taking any anticoagulant?

  • a. The color of the tablets.
  • b. The signs and symptoms of bleeding and when to seek medical attention.
  • c. The manufacturer of the drug.
  • d. The time of day the pharmacy closes.

Answer: b. The signs and symptoms of bleeding and when to seek medical attention.

11. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 8.0 but no signs of active bleeding. The most appropriate initial intervention in an outpatient setting is to:

  • a. Tell the patient to double their next dose.
  • b. Hold the warfarin dose and consider a small oral dose of Vitamin K.
  • c. Send the patient to the emergency department for fresh frozen plasma.
  • d. Make no change to the current regimen.

Answer: b. Hold the warfarin dose and consider a small oral dose of Vitamin K.

12. The HAS-BLED score is a tool used to assess:

  • a. A patient’s risk of stroke.
  • b. A patient’s risk of bleeding while on anticoagulation.
  • c. A patient’s adherence to therapy.
  • d. The severity of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Answer: b. A patient’s risk of bleeding while on anticoagulation.

13. A patient asks if they can take over-the-counter ibuprofen for a headache while on warfarin. The best response is:

  • a. “Yes, ibuprofen is perfectly safe.”
  • b. “No, you should use acetaminophen instead, as NSAIDs like ibuprofen can increase your bleeding risk.”
  • c. “Yes, but only if you double your warfarin dose.”
  • d. “You should not take any pain relievers.”

Answer: b. “No, you should use acetaminophen instead, as NSAIDs like ibuprofen can increase your bleeding risk.”

14. Dabigatran works by directly inhibiting which clotting factor?

  • a. Factor Xa
  • b. Factor IXa
  • c. Thrombin (Factor IIa)
  • d. Vitamin K epoxide reductase

Answer: c. Thrombin (Factor IIa)

15. A community pharmacist plays a vital role in identifying and resolving drug-related problems for patients on anticoagulants.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

16. Which of the following patient populations requires a dose reduction for apixaban for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation?

  • a. Patients with at least 2 of the following: age ≥ 80 years, body weight ≤ 60 kg, or serum creatinine ≥ 1.5 mg/dL.
  • b. All patients over the age of 65.
  • c. Patients with a history of hypertension.
  • d. Patients taking a concurrent statin.

Answer: a. Patients with at least 2 of the following: age ≥ 80 years, body weight ≤ 60 kg, or serum creatinine ≥ 1.5 mg/dL.

17. “Bridging” with a parenteral anticoagulant is required when initiating warfarin because:

  • a. Warfarin has a long half-life and a delayed onset of therapeutic effect.
  • b. It helps the patient remember to take their warfarin.
  • c. It is required by all insurance companies.
  • d. It lowers the risk of bleeding.

Answer: a. Warfarin has a long half-life and a delayed onset of therapeutic effect.

18. Pharmacogenetic testing for CYP2C9 and VKORC1 variants can help predict the optimal starting dose for which anticoagulant?

  • a. Apixaban
  • b. Dabigatran
  • c. Rivaroxaban
  • d. Warfarin

Answer: d. Warfarin

19. What is the reversal agent for dabigatran?

  • a. Vitamin K
  • b. Protamine
  • c. Idarucizumab
  • d. Andexanet alfa

Answer: c. Idarucizumab

20. A patient wishes to switch from warfarin (INR 2.5) to apixaban. When should they start the apixaban?

  • a. Immediately, while continuing warfarin for 5 days.
  • b. After the INR falls below 2.0.
  • c. 24 hours after the last warfarin dose, regardless of INR.
  • d. One week after stopping warfarin.

Answer: b. After the INR falls below 2.0.

21. Adherence is particularly critical for DOACs compared to warfarin because:

  • a. DOACs have much shorter half-lives, and missing a dose can quickly lead to a loss of anticoagulation effect.
  • b. DOACs are more likely to be forgotten.
  • c. Warfarin’s effect lasts for weeks after a missed dose.
  • d. DOACs are less effective than warfarin.

Answer: a. DOACs have much shorter half-lives, and missing a dose can quickly lead to a loss of anticoagulation effect.

22. Which of the following antibiotics is well-known for significantly increasing a patient’s INR when taken with warfarin?

  • a. Penicillin
  • b. Doxycycline
  • c. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
  • d. Nitrofurantoin

Answer: c. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

23. The pharmacology of anticoagulants is a topic covered in the Patient Care 3 course syllabus.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

24. A patient with a new DVT is treated with enoxaparin in the hospital and discharged on warfarin. This is an example of:

  • a. Primary prevention.
  • b. Bridging therapy.
  • c. Rate control.
  • d. Dual pathway inhibition.

Answer: b. Bridging therapy.

25. A patient with a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 1 in a male patient with atrial fibrillation should be:

  • a. Started on warfarin immediately.
  • b. Started on a DOAC immediately.
  • c. Prescribed aspirin only.
  • d. Considered for anticoagulation, after a discussion of risks and benefits.

Answer: d. Considered for anticoagulation, after a discussion of risks and benefits.

26. Counseling a patient on the appropriate use of their new anticoagulant prescription is a key responsibility for a community pharmacist.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

27. What is the primary mechanism of action of warfarin?

  • a. It directly inhibits thrombin.
  • b. It directly inhibits Factor Xa.
  • c. It inhibits the activation of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
  • d. It inhibits platelet aggregation.

Answer: c. It inhibits the activation of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.

28. Which DOAC must be dispensed and stored in its original container to protect it from moisture?

  • a. Apixaban
  • b. Rivaroxaban
  • c. Edoxaban
  • d. Dabigatran

Answer: d. Dabigatran

29. A patient on rivaroxaban for DVT treatment should be counseled to:

  • a. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
  • b. Take the initial treatment dose (15 mg BID) with food.
  • c. Expect their INR to be between 2 and 3.
  • d. Stop taking the medication after one month.

Answer: b. Take the initial treatment dose (15 mg BID) with food.

30. The Professional Skills Lab 3 includes a session specifically on “Cardiovascular Care in the Community: Anticoagulation.”

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

31. A patient on anticoagulation calls the pharmacy complaining of black, tarry stools. The pharmacist should:

  • a. Tell the patient this is a normal side effect.
  • b. Recommend an over-the-counter antidiarrheal medication.
  • c. Advise the patient to seek immediate medical evaluation as this is a sign of a GI bleed.
  • d. Tell the patient to double their next dose.

Answer: c. Advise the patient to seek immediate medical evaluation as this is a sign of a GI bleed.

32. For which anticoagulant is routine monitoring of renal function most critical for dose adjustments?

  • a. Warfarin
  • b. All DOACs
  • c. Phenprocoumon
  • d. It is not necessary to monitor renal function.

Answer: b. All DOACs

33. What is the most important counseling point regarding diet for a patient starting warfarin?

  • a. They must completely avoid all foods containing Vitamin K.
  • b. They should strive for a consistent intake of Vitamin K-containing foods from week to week.
  • c. They should increase their intake of green leafy vegetables.
  • d. Diet has no effect on warfarin therapy.

Answer: b. They should strive for a consistent intake of Vitamin K-containing foods from week to week.

34. The “S” in CHA₂DS₂-VASc stands for:

  • a. Smoking
  • b. Statin use
  • c. Stroke (or TIA)
  • d. Sex (female)

Answer: c. Stroke (or TIA)

35. A patient with a mechanical mitral valve would require which anticoagulant therapy?

  • a. Apixaban
  • b. Dabigatran
  • c. Warfarin
  • d. Aspirin monotherapy

Answer: c. Warfarin

36. Andexanet alfa is a reversal agent for which class of anticoagulants?

  • a. Vitamin K antagonists
  • b. Direct thrombin inhibitors
  • c. Factor Xa inhibitors
  • d. Heparins

Answer: c. Factor Xa inhibitors

37. When dispensing a new prescription for an anticoagulant, the pharmacist should always:

  • a. Assume the patient knows how to take it.
  • b. Provide comprehensive counseling on dosing, side effects, and adherence.
  • c. Refuse to fill the prescription if it is a DOAC.
  • d. Tell the patient that routine monitoring is never needed.

Answer: b. Provide comprehensive counseling on dosing, side effects, and adherence.

38. Which of the following scores gives one point for “Age 65-74”?

  • a. HAS-BLED
  • b. CHA₂DS₂-VASc
  • c. ASCVD Risk Score
  • d. Framingham Risk Score

Answer: b. CHA₂DS₂-VASc

39. A patient taking warfarin should be advised to talk to their pharmacist or doctor before starting any new:

  • a. Prescription medications.
  • b. Over-the-counter medications.
  • c. Herbal supplements.
  • d. All of the above.

Answer: d. All of the above.

40. Why is adherence particularly important when treating a DVT or PE with an anticoagulant?

  • a. To prevent post-thrombotic syndrome and recurrent clots.
  • b. To ensure the medication is cost-effective.
  • c. To lower the patient’s blood pressure.
  • d. To prevent angioedema.

Answer: a. To prevent post-thrombotic syndrome and recurrent clots.

41. The initial treatment duration for a provoked VTE (e.g., after surgery) is typically:

  • a. 1 month
  • b. 3 months
  • c. 6 months
  • d. Lifelong

Answer: b. 3 months

42. Which DOAC is a prodrug that is converted to its active form after absorption?

  • a. Apixaban
  • b. Rivaroxaban
  • c. Dabigatran etexilate
  • d. Edoxaban

Answer: c. Dabigatran etexilate

43. A community pharmacist managing an anticoagulation clinic is an example of what type of practice model?

  • a. Dispensing-only pharmacy
  • b. Medication Therapy Management (MTM) / Ambulatory Care
  • c. Inpatient hospital pharmacy
  • d. Compounding pharmacy

Answer: b. Medication Therapy Management (MTM) / Ambulatory Care

44. A patient’s INR comes back as 1.3. Their goal is 2.0-3.0. This INR is:

  • a. Supratherapeutic
  • b. Therapeutic
  • c. Subtherapeutic
  • d. Critically high

Answer: c. Subtherapeutic

45. What is the most common adverse effect of all anticoagulant medications?

  • a. Cough
  • b. Nausea
  • c. Bleeding
  • d. Headache

Answer: c. Bleeding

46. Which of the following can increase the bleeding risk for a patient on anticoagulation?

  • a. Concurrent use of aspirin or an NSAID.
  • b. Recent major surgery.
  • c. A history of GI bleeding.
  • d. All of the above.

Answer: d. All of the above.

47. A pharmacist defending a therapeutic plan for a patient with AFib is a key competency.

  • a. True
  • b. False

Answer: a. True

48. Before dispensing a DOAC, the pharmacist must confirm the patient’s most recent:

  • a. Lipid panel.
  • b. Liver function tests.
  • c. Renal function (e.g., CrCl).
  • d. White blood cell count.

Answer: c. Renal function (e.g., CrCl).

49. A patient reports that they use a daily pillbox for their medications. The pharmacist should advise that which anticoagulant should NOT be placed in a pillbox?

  • a. Warfarin
  • b. Apixaban
  • c. Dabigatran
  • d. Rivaroxaban

Answer: c. Dabigatran

50. The ultimate goal of anticoagulation management in the community is to:

  • a. Maximize the number of INR checks per month.
  • b. Balance the prevention of thromboembolic events with the risk of bleeding to improve a patient’s quality of life and survival.
  • c. Switch every patient from warfarin to a DOAC.
  • d. Eliminate all dietary Vitamin K from patients’ diets.

Answer: b. Balance the prevention of thromboembolic events with the risk of bleeding to improve a patient’s quality of life and survival.

Leave a Comment