Male reproductive system MCQs With Answer

Male reproductive system MCQs With Answer provides B.Pharm students a focused review of male reproductive anatomy, physiology, endocrinology and relevant pharmacology. This resource covers spermatogenesis, roles of Sertoli and Leydig cells, hormonal regulation by GnRH, LH and FSH, testosterone biosynthesis, prostate and accessory gland function, semen analysis parameters, common pathologies (BPH, prostatitis, varicocele), and drug classes like PDE5 inhibitors, 5α-reductase inhibitors and alpha-blockers. Emphasis on mechanism of action, adverse effects and drug interactions ensures clinical relevance for pharmacy practice. Clear, exam-oriented MCQs with explanations help reinforce concepts and improve retention. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which cell type in the testis is primarily responsible for testosterone production?

  • Sertoli cell
  • Leydig cell
  • Germ cell
  • Peritubular myoid cell

Correct Answer: Leydig cell

Q2. Which hormone directly stimulates Leydig cells to synthesize testosterone?

  • Prolactin
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Correct Answer: Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Q3. What is the main function of Sertoli cells?

  • Secrete testosterone into circulation
  • Provide nourishment and support for developing sperm
  • Produce seminal fluid components
  • Contract to propel sperm through epididymis

Correct Answer: Provide nourishment and support for developing sperm

Q4. Spermatogenesis occurs primarily in which structure?

  • Epididymis
  • Vas deferens
  • Seminiferous tubules
  • Prostate gland

Correct Answer: Seminiferous tubules

Q5. Which barrier protects developing germ cells from immune attack?

  • Blood–brain barrier
  • Blood–testis barrier
  • Placental barrier
  • Hemato-epididymal barrier

Correct Answer: Blood–testis barrier

Q6. Which enzyme converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?

  • Aromatase
  • 5α-reductase
  • CYP11A1
  • Steroid sulfatase

Correct Answer: 5α-reductase

Q7. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is most associated with which clinical condition?

  • Testicular torsion
  • Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and androgenic alopecia
  • Varicocele
  • Epididymitis

Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and androgenic alopecia

Q8. Which drug class inhibits 5α-reductase and reduces prostate size?

  • Alpha-1 blockers
  • 5α-reductase inhibitors
  • Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors
  • Selective estrogen receptor modulators

Correct Answer: 5α-reductase inhibitors

Q9. Which medication is a 5α-reductase inhibitor commonly used for BPH?

  • Tamsulosin
  • Finasteride
  • Sildenafil
  • Terazosin

Correct Answer: Finasteride

Q10. Which mechanism mediates penile erection physiologically?

  • Increased sympathetic tone causing smooth muscle contraction
  • NO-mediated cGMP increase causing smooth muscle relaxation
  • Direct androgen binding to corpus cavernosum receptors
  • Decreased blood flow due to vasoconstriction

Correct Answer: NO-mediated cGMP increase causing smooth muscle relaxation

Q11. Which drug class potentiates the NO–cGMP pathway to treat erectile dysfunction?

  • Alpha-1 blockers
  • Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitors
  • 5α-reductase inhibitors
  • Beta-blockers

Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitors

Q12. A contraindication to PDE5 inhibitors is concomitant use of which drug type?

  • Nitrates
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Statins
  • Proton pump inhibitors

Correct Answer: Nitrates

Q13. Which part of sperm contains the enzymes that help penetrate the ovum?

  • Midpiece
  • Tail (flagellum)
  • Acrosome
  • Principal piece

Correct Answer: Acrosome

Q14. Semen volume and fructose are primarily secreted by which organ?

  • Prostate gland
  • Seminal vesicles
  • Bulbourethral glands
  • Testes

Correct Answer: Seminal vesicles

Q15. Which gland contributes prostatic-specific antigen (PSA) to semen?

  • Seminal vesicles
  • Prostate gland
  • Bulbourethral glands
  • Epididymis

Correct Answer: Prostate gland

Q16. Normal sperm concentration in semen is typically above which threshold (WHO)?

  • 1 million/mL
  • 15 million/mL
  • 50 million/mL
  • 100 million/mL

Correct Answer: 15 million/mL

Q17. Oligospermia refers to which abnormal semen finding?

  • Low sperm motility
  • Low sperm concentration
  • Absence of sperm
  • High white blood cells in semen

Correct Answer: Low sperm concentration

Q18. Azoospermia means:

  • Low semen volume
  • Complete absence of sperm in ejaculate
  • Decreased sperm motility
  • High percentage of abnormal sperm

Correct Answer: Complete absence of sperm in ejaculate

Q19. Which condition is most commonly associated with infertility due to increased scrotal temperature?

  • Hydrocele
  • Varicocele
  • Orchitis
  • Testicular cancer

Correct Answer: Varicocele

Q20. Which infectious agent is a common cause of acute epididymo-orchitis in sexually active young men?

  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Escherichia coli (only in neonates)

Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

Q21. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is useful clinically for:

  • Diagnosing testicular torsion
  • Screening and monitoring prostate disease including cancer
  • Evaluating epididymal function
  • Assessing sperm motility

Correct Answer: Screening and monitoring prostate disease including cancer

Q22. Which receptor mediates most intracellular effects of androgens?

  • Estrogen receptor
  • Androgen receptor (nuclear receptor)
  • GABA receptor
  • β-adrenergic receptor

Correct Answer: Androgen receptor (nuclear receptor)

Q23. Long-term testosterone therapy in males can cause which adverse effect on fertility?

  • Increase in spermatogenesis
  • Suppression of spermatogenesis and reduced sperm count
  • Improved sperm motility
  • Hyperplasia of seminiferous tubules

Correct Answer: Suppression of spermatogenesis and reduced sperm count

Q24. Which hormone is produced by the hypothalamus to initiate the HPG axis?

  • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
  • Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • Testosterone
  • Inhibin B

Correct Answer: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

Q25. In males, FSH primarily acts on which cells to support spermatogenesis?

  • Leydig cells
  • Sertoli cells
  • Germ cells directly
  • Interstitial macrophages

Correct Answer: Sertoli cells

Q26. Which protein secreted by Sertoli cells provides negative feedback to inhibit FSH?

  • Inhibin B
  • Activin
  • Prolactin
  • Transferrin

Correct Answer: Inhibin B

Q27. Aromatase converts testosterone into which hormone?

  • Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
  • Estradiol (estrogen)
  • Cortisol
  • Aldosterone

Correct Answer: Estradiol (estrogen)

Q28. Which drug is commonly used to relax prostate smooth muscle and improve urinary flow quickly in BPH?

  • Finasteride
  • Tamsulosin
  • Metformin
  • Sildenafil

Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

Q29. Alpha-1 blockers used for BPH act primarily by:

  • Inhibiting DHT production
  • Relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck
  • Increasing testosterone synthesis
  • Blocking PDE5 enzyme

Correct Answer: Relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck

Q30. Which laboratory value would increase with primary hypogonadism?

  • Testosterone (high)
  • Luteinizing hormone (LH) (high)
  • FSH (low)
  • GnRH (high)

Correct Answer: Luteinizing hormone (LH) (high)

Q31. Testicular torsion is best characterized by which clinical sign?

  • Gradual onset scrotal pain relieved by elevation
  • Acute severe testicular pain with absent cremasteric reflex
  • Painless testicular swelling with fever
  • Chronic intermittent scrotal ache improved by rest

Correct Answer: Acute severe testicular pain with absent cremasteric reflex

Q32. Which diagnostic test is first-line for evaluating varicocele?

  • Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler
  • PSA measurement
  • Semen culture
  • Testicular biopsy

Correct Answer: Scrotal ultrasound with Doppler

Q33. Which cell organelle is abundant in the sperm midpiece to support motility?

  • Ribosomes
  • Mitochondria
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Lysosomes

Correct Answer: Mitochondria

Q34. Which of the following medications can cause gynecomastia in males?

  • Spironolactone
  • Metformin
  • Amoxicillin
  • Levothyroxine

Correct Answer: Spironolactone

Q35. The vas deferens functions primarily to:

  • Produce sperm
  • Store testosterone
  • Transport sperm from epididymis to ejaculatory ducts
  • Secrete alkaline mucus into semen

Correct Answer: Transport sperm from epididymis to ejaculatory ducts

Q36. Which surgical procedure blocks sperm transport for male contraception?

  • Vasectomy
  • Circumcision
  • Orchiectomy
  • Prostatectomy

Correct Answer: Vasectomy

Q37. Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands primarily secrete:

  • Fructose-rich fluid
  • A pre-ejaculate alkaline mucus
  • Prostatic fluid high in PSA
  • Lipids for sperm membrane synthesis

Correct Answer: A pre-ejaculate alkaline mucus

Q38. Which tumor marker is most specific for seminomatous testicular cancer?

  • AFP (alpha-fetoprotein)
  • β-hCG (beta-human chorionic gonadotropin) and placental alkaline phosphatase
  • PSA
  • CA-125

Correct Answer: β-hCG (beta-human chorionic gonadotropin) and placental alkaline phosphatase

Q39. Anabolic steroid abuse commonly leads to which endocrine change?

  • Increased LH and FSH
  • Suppression of LH and FSH, causing testicular atrophy
  • Increased GnRH secretion
  • Permanent increase in sperm count

Correct Answer: Suppression of LH and FSH, causing testicular atrophy

Q40. Which substance in semen helps neutralize acidic vaginal secretions?

  • Fructose
  • Alkaline prostatic secretions
  • Testosterone
  • Inhibin B

Correct Answer: Alkaline prostatic secretions

Q41. Which imaging modality is preferred to evaluate prostate size and guide biopsy?

  • Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
  • Abdominal X-ray
  • Scrotal MRI
  • Chest CT

Correct Answer: Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)

Q42. Which drug is used to pharmacologically reduce androgen action by blocking androgen receptors?

  • Spironolactone
  • Flutamide
  • Finasteride
  • Leuprolide

Correct Answer: Flutamide

Q43. GnRH agonists used in prostate cancer initially cause which effect before suppression?

  • Immediate suppression of LH/FSH
  • Initial surge (flare) of LH/FSH and testosterone
  • No change in hormone levels
  • Permanent decrease in GnRH production

Correct Answer: Initial surge (flare) of LH/FSH and testosterone

Q44. Which physiological change occurs during the ejaculatory phase?

  • Storage of sperm in epididymis
  • Rhythmic contractions propelling semen through urethra
  • Relaxation of pelvic floor muscles
  • Decreased sympathetic outflow

Correct Answer: Rhythmic contractions propelling semen through urethra

Q45. Testicular descent into the scrotum is primarily mediated by which structure in fetal development?

  • Sertoli cells
  • Gubernaculum
  • Prostate gland
  • Seminal vesicles

Correct Answer: Gubernaculum

Q46. Which lab finding suggests primary testicular failure rather than hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction?

  • Low LH and low testosterone
  • High LH with low testosterone
  • High GnRH with high testosterone
  • Low FSH with high testosterone

Correct Answer: High LH with low testosterone

Q47. Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat bacterial prostatitis with good prostatic penetration?

  • Aminoglycosides
  • Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
  • Penicillin V
  • First-generation cephalosporins only

Correct Answer: Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)

Q48. A high proportion of morphologically abnormal sperm in semen analysis is termed:

  • Asthenozoospermia
  • Teratozoospermia
  • Leukocytospermia
  • Necrozoospermia

Correct Answer: Teratozoospermia

Q49. Which laboratory assay is most specific for evaluating Leydig cell function?

  • Serum estradiol
  • Serum testosterone level
  • Serum PSA
  • Serum prolactin only

Correct Answer: Serum testosterone level

Q50. Which preventive measure reduces risk of testicular cancer and is recommended in newborn males with undescended testes?

  • Immediate testosterone therapy
  • Orchidopexy (surgical descent) in early childhood
  • Routine vasectomy
  • Prostatectomy

Correct Answer: Orchidopexy (surgical descent) in early childhood

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