Introduction to human anatomy and physiology MCQs With Answer offers B.Pharm students a focused review of structural and functional principles essential for pharmacy practice. This concise guide emphasizes organ systems, cell physiology, homeostasis, neurophysiology, cardiovascular and renal mechanisms, endocrine regulation, and histology with clinical correlations relevant to pharmacology and therapeutics. Each multiple-choice question reinforces key concepts such as membrane transport, action potentials, respiratory gas exchange, drug-target interactions and pharmacokinetic implications. Questions are tailored to strengthen understanding for exams, practical prescribing contexts and rational drug therapy. Detailed explanations and answers link anatomy and physiology to drug action, metabolism and patient safety. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.
Q1. Which organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production in cells?
- Mitochondrion
- Golgi apparatus
- Lysosome
- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: Mitochondrion
Q2. Which membrane transport process requires ATP and moves substances against their concentration gradient?
- Simple diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Primary active transport
- Osmosis
Correct Answer: Primary active transport
Q3. During the cardiac action potential, which phase corresponds to rapid repolarization mediated by potassium efflux?
- Phase 0
- Phase 1
- Phase 2
- Phase 3
Correct Answer: Phase 3
Q4. Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction to activate skeletal muscle contraction?
- Norepinephrine
- Acetylcholine
- Dopamine
- Glutamate
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Q5. Which receptor type mediates sympathetic cardiac stimulation increasing heart rate?
- Muscarinic M2 receptor
- Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
- Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
- Beta-2 adrenergic receptor
Correct Answer: Beta-1 adrenergic receptor
Q6. Which muscle type uses troponin-tropomyosin regulation and has striations?
- Smooth muscle
- Skeletal muscle
- Cardiac and smooth muscle
- Cardiac muscle only
Correct Answer: Skeletal muscle
Q7. In the kidney, which segment of the nephron is the primary site of bulk reabsorption of glucose, amino acids and bicarbonate?
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Loop of Henle
- Proximal convoluted tubule
- Collecting duct
Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Q8. Which respiratory volume represents the maximum air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal inspiration?
- Tidal volume
- Inspiratory reserve volume
- Expiratory reserve volume
- Residual volume
Correct Answer: Inspiratory reserve volume
Q9. Which blood component is primarily responsible for oxygen transport?
- Platelets
- Plasma proteins
- Leukocytes
- Hemoglobin within red blood cells
Correct Answer: Hemoglobin within red blood cells
Q10. The Frank-Starling mechanism describes which cardiac principle?
- Heart rate increases with increased sympathetic tone
- Stroke volume increases with increased ventricular preload
- Afterload decreases with vessel dilation
- Myocardial contractility is independent of sarcomere length
Correct Answer: Stroke volume increases with increased ventricular preload
Q11. Which hormone released by the pancreas lowers blood glucose by increasing cellular uptake?
- Glucagon
- Insulin
- Cortisol
- Growth hormone
Correct Answer: Insulin
Q12. Which liver function is most relevant to drug metabolism?
- Bile production only
- Glycogen storage only
- Phase I and Phase II biotransformation
- Vitamin K synthesis
Correct Answer: Phase I and Phase II biotransformation
Q13. Which ion channel opening primarily initiates the rising phase of neuronal action potentials?
- Voltage-gated potassium channels
- Ligand-gated chloride channels
- Voltage-gated sodium channels
- Calcium-activated potassium channels
Correct Answer: Voltage-gated sodium channels
Q14. The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right in response to which condition, facilitating oxygen release to tissues?
- Decreased temperature and decreased CO2
- Increased pH (alkalosis)
- Increased 2,3-BPG, increased CO2 and decreased pH
- Decreased 2,3-BPG
Correct Answer: Increased 2,3-BPG, increased CO2 and decreased pH
Q15. Which renal parameter is most directly used to assess glomerular filtration rate clinically?
- Urine concentration alone
- Serum creatinine and creatinine clearance estimation
- Urinary sodium excretion
- Plasma albumin concentration
Correct Answer: Serum creatinine and creatinine clearance estimation
Q16. Which process is the primary mechanism of acid excretion by the kidney to maintain acid-base balance?
- Secretion of bicarbonate into urine
- Reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate and generation of new bicarbonate with ammonium excretion
- Passive diffusion of hydrogen ions into bloodstream
- Increased glomerular filtration of proteins
Correct Answer: Reabsorption of filtered bicarbonate and generation of new bicarbonate with ammonium excretion
Q17. Which class of white blood cells is primarily responsible for antibody production?
- Neutrophils
- Monocytes
- B lymphocytes (B cells)
- Natural killer cells
Correct Answer: B lymphocytes (B cells)
Q18. Which tissue type lines the small intestine and is specialized for absorption?
- Stratified squamous epithelium
- Simple columnar epithelium with microvilli
- Transitional epithelium
- Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
Correct Answer: Simple columnar epithelium with microvilli
Q19. Which hormone increases blood calcium by stimulating bone resorption and enhancing renal calcium reabsorption?
- Calcitonin
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- Insulin
- Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Q20. Which ECG wave corresponds to ventricular depolarization?
- P wave
- T wave
- QRS complex
- U wave
Correct Answer: QRS complex
Q21. In pulmonary gas exchange, which factor most directly affects the rate of diffusion of a gas across the alveolar-capillary membrane?
- Alveolar macrophage count
- Surface area and thickness of the membrane, and partial pressure gradient
- Number of bronchioles
- Kidney perfusion
Correct Answer: Surface area and thickness of the membrane, and partial pressure gradient
Q22. Which autonomic receptor, when activated, causes bronchial smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation?
- Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
- Beta-2 adrenergic receptor
- Muscarinic M3 receptor
- Dopamine D2 receptor
Correct Answer: Beta-2 adrenergic receptor
Q23. Which physiological change will decrease hepatic drug clearance for a drug primarily cleared by hepatic metabolism?
- Increased hepatic blood flow
- Upregulation of hepatic metabolic enzymes
- Severe liver disease causing reduced enzymatic capacity
- Induction of Phase I enzymes
Correct Answer: Severe liver disease causing reduced enzymatic capacity
Q24. Hemostasis involves a sequence of events; which of the following is the correct initial step after vascular injury?
- Fibrinolysis activation
- Platelet adhesion and aggregation to exposed subendothelial collagen
- Plasma clotting factor activation only
- Formation of mature fibrin clot immediately
Correct Answer: Platelet adhesion and aggregation to exposed subendothelial collagen
Q25. Which structure of the central nervous system is the primary center for integration of autonomic and endocrine responses to maintain homeostasis?
- Cerebellum
- Medulla oblongata
- Hypothalamus
- Basal ganglia
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Q26. Which property of a drug most strongly influences its passive absorption across gastrointestinal membranes?
- Water solubility only
- Molecular ionization state and lipophilicity at intestinal pH
- Presence of chromophores
- Plasma protein binding
Correct Answer: Molecular ionization state and lipophilicity at intestinal pH
Q27. Which bone cell type is responsible for bone formation and synthesis of osteoid?
- Osteoclast
- Chondrocyte
- Osteoblast
- Osteocyte
Correct Answer: Osteoblast
Q28. Which physiological mechanism produces heat during short-term exposure to cold?
- Vasodilation of skin vessels
- Sweating
- Shivering thermogenesis from skeletal muscle activity
- Decreased thyroid hormone release
Correct Answer: Shivering thermogenesis from skeletal muscle activity
Q29. Which blood test abnormality indicates hemolytic anemia due to increased red cell destruction?
- Decreased bilirubin
- Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and unconjugated bilirubin
- Low reticulocyte count
- Low plasma free hemoglobin
Correct Answer: Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and unconjugated bilirubin
Q30. In shock with reduced tissue perfusion, which immediate compensatory response helps maintain blood pressure?
- Decreased sympathetic outflow
- Peripheral vasoconstriction via sympathetic activation and increased heart rate
- Increased parasympathetic tone causing bradycardia
- Renal excretion of sodium and water
Correct Answer: Peripheral vasoconstriction via sympathetic activation and increased heart rate
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