In-vitro disease models MCQs With Answer

Introduction: In-vitro disease models MCQs With Answer offers M.Pharm students a focused set of practice questions to deepen understanding of contemporary in‑vitro approaches used in preclinical evaluation. This collection emphasizes mechanistic and translational aspects of 2D and 3D culture systems, organoids, spheroids, co‑culture strategies, microfluidic organ‑on‑chip platforms, iPSC‑derived models, genome editing, assay validation and limitations. Each question is designed to test conceptual knowledge, experimental design considerations, and interpretation of readouts commonly encountered in drug discovery and toxicology studies. Regular practice with these MCQs will help students prepare for examinations and research by reinforcing critical distinctions and decision points when choosing or evaluating in‑vitro disease models.

Q1. What key advantage do 3D in‑vitro models typically have over traditional 2D monolayer cultures?

• Faster proliferation rates for all cell types
• Simple uniform exposure to nutrients and drugs
• Better mimicry of cell–cell and cell–ECM interactions and diffusion gradients
• Lower cost and easier imaging than 2D cultures

Correct Answer: Better mimicry of cell–cell and cell–ECM interactions and diffusion gradients

Q2. Which statement best describes organoids used for disease modeling?

• They are immortalized cancer cell lines grown on plastic
• Self‑organizing 3D structures derived from stem cells that recapitulate organ features
• Microfluidic chips coated only with synthetic polymers
• Single‑cell suspensions used for high‑throughput screening

Correct Answer: Self‑organizing 3D structures derived from stem cells that recapitulate organ features

Q3. Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are generated by which process?

• Fusion of two different differentiated cells
• Reprogramming somatic cells using defined transcription factors (Yamanaka factors)
• Spontaneous dedifferentiation in culture without factors
• Isolation of embryonic stem cells from adult tissues

Correct Answer: Reprogramming somatic cells using defined transcription factors (Yamanaka factors)

Q4. Multicellular tumor spheroids are particularly useful in cancer drug testing because they:

• Eliminate the need to consider drug penetration
• Provide homogeneous oxygenation throughout the structure
• Model tumor microenvironment, including gradients and cell heterogeneity
• Require no extracellular matrix components

Correct Answer: Model tumor microenvironment, including gradients and cell heterogeneity

Q5. A defining feature of organ‑on‑chip microfluidic platforms is their ability to:

• Grow tissues only under static conditions
• Deliver controlled fluid flow, shear stress and mechanical cues to cells
• Replace the need for any readouts or sensors
• Automatically differentiate stem cells without signals

Correct Answer: Deliver controlled fluid flow, shear stress and mechanical cues to cells

Q6. High‑content screening (HCS) readouts are best described as:

• Single absorbance measurements from culture supernatant
• Multiparametric, image‑based analyses that quantify phenotypic changes
• Only genomic sequencing outputs
• Visual inspection without quantitative endpoints

Correct Answer: Multiparametric, image‑based analyses that quantify phenotypic changes

Q7. Co‑culture systems are primarily used in in‑vitro disease models to:

• Reduce experimental complexity by isolating a single cell type
• Study interactions between different cell types that influence disease physiology
• Achieve higher throughput than monocultures
• Avoid the need for extracellular matrix

Correct Answer: Study interactions between different cell types that influence disease physiology

Q8. How is CRISPR‑Cas9 most often applied in in‑vitro disease modeling?

• To non‑specifically increase cell proliferation rates
• To introduce or correct specific genetic mutations creating isogenic disease models
• To fluorescently label all proteins in a cell
• To replace the need for functional assays

Correct Answer: To introduce or correct specific genetic mutations creating isogenic disease models

Q9. Which type of validity refers to how well an in‑vitro model predicts clinical outcomes in humans?

• Face validity
• Construct validity
• Predictive validity
• Internal validity

Correct Answer: Predictive validity

Q10. A major limitation of many in‑vitro disease models that reduces translational relevance is:

• Their inclusion of a complete adaptive immune system
• Overrepresentation of patient variability
• Lack of immune system components and systemic interactions
• Excessive cost savings compared to animal models

Correct Answer: Lack of immune system components and systemic interactions

Q11. 3D bioprinting contributes to in‑vitro modeling by:

• Eliminating the need for extracellular matrix cues entirely
• Spatially depositing cells and biomaterials to create tissue‑like architectures
• Automatically generating organoids without cells
• Only producing acellular scaffolds unsuitable for functional assays

Correct Answer: Spatially depositing cells and biomaterials to create tissue‑like architectures

Q12. Compared with immortalized cell lines, human primary cells are preferred when the goal is to:

• Obtain unlimited proliferative capacity regardless of phenotype
• Achieve closer physiological relevance to donor tissue and maintain differentiated functions
• Simplify genetic manipulation with higher ease
• Ensure identical responses across all experiments

Correct Answer: Achieve closer physiological relevance to donor tissue and maintain differentiated functions

Q13. Which in‑vitro readout is most informative for modeling proteinopathy seen in neurodegenerative diseases?

• Bacterial contamination rates
• Protein aggregation, neuronal viability and synaptic marker changes
• Total cell number without cell‑type specificity
• Only glucose consumption rates

Correct Answer: Protein aggregation, neuronal viability and synaptic marker changes

Q14. iPSC‑derived cardiomyocytes are used to assess drug‑induced cardiotoxicity by measuring:

• Mitochondrial DNA sequence only
• Electrophysiological field potentials, action potential duration and contractility
• Color change of the culture medium
• Only cell proliferation index

Correct Answer: Electrophysiological field potentials, action potential duration and contractility

Q15. The Z’‑factor in assay development is a statistical measure of:

• Genetic variability between donors
• Assay robustness and separation between positive and negative controls for HTS
• The number of cells required for an experiment
• Only the signal intensity of a single well

Correct Answer: Assay robustness and separation between positive and negative controls for HTS

Q16. Patient‑derived tumor organoids are particularly valuable in precision oncology because they:

• Are genetically identical to standard cell lines
• Reflect individual tumor heterogeneity and can guide personalized drug response testing
• Always eliminate the need for clinical trials
• Require no ethical considerations

Correct Answer: Reflect individual tumor heterogeneity and can guide personalized drug response testing

Q17. Matrigel and other ECM hydrogels are used in 3D cultures mainly to provide:

• Antibiotic activity to prevent contamination
• Biochemical and structural cues that support cell adhesion, differentiation and morphogenesis
• Electrical stimulation of cells
• Unlimited mechanical strength for load‑bearing tissues

Correct Answer: Biochemical and structural cues that support cell adhesion, differentiation and morphogenesis

Q18. Caco‑2 cell monolayers are standard in vitro models to assess:

• Neuronal synapse formation
• Intestinal epithelial permeability and transepithelial transport (TEER measurements)
• Cardiac contractility
• Hepatic metabolic clearance exclusively

Correct Answer: Intestinal epithelial permeability and transepithelial transport (TEER measurements)

Q19. The central reason that large spheroids develop hypoxic or necrotic cores is:

• Excessive mechanical agitation in culture
• Diffusion limitations of oxygen and nutrients beyond a certain spheroid size
• Intrinsic overexpression of apoptotic genes only
• Presence of serum in the medium

Correct Answer: Diffusion limitations of oxygen and nutrients beyond a certain spheroid size

Q20. Reporter gene assays (e.g., luciferase, GFP) in disease models are most useful for:

• Measuring nonspecific cytotoxicity exclusively
• Quantitatively monitoring activation or repression of specific signaling pathways in real time
• Replacing the need to validate protein expression
• Only detecting bacterial contamination

Correct Answer: Quantitatively monitoring activation or repression of specific signaling pathways in real time

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