Importance of microbiology MCQs With Answer

Microbiology MCQs with answer are essential study tools for B. Pharm students preparing for exams and clinical practice. Mastery of bacteriology, virology, mycology, parasitology, immunology, and antimicrobial pharmacology helps students understand pathogen identification, sterilization, laboratory techniques, and antibiotic resistance. Practicing targeted multiple-choice questions improves recall, sharpens diagnostic reasoning, and reinforces laboratory safety and quality control concepts. High-quality microbiology MCQs aligned with the B. Pharm curriculum also boost confidence for practical exams and competitive tests. Focused practice on culture media, staining methods, biochemical tests, and mechanisms of action of antimicrobials bridges theory with pharmacy applications. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which bacterial structure is primarily responsible for motility?

  • Capsule
  • Flagellum
  • Pilus
  • Cell wall

Correct Answer: Flagellum

Q2. Gram-positive bacteria are characterized by which feature?

  • Thin peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane
  • Thick peptidoglycan layer and teichoic acids
  • Lack of peptidoglycan
  • Presence of lipopolysaccharide

Correct Answer: Thick peptidoglycan layer and teichoic acids

Q3. Which staining method is best for detecting Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

  • Gram stain
  • India ink stain
  • Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) stain
  • Capsule stain

Correct Answer: Ziehl-Neelsen (acid-fast) stain

Q4. Autoclaving is effective for sterilization because it uses which combination?

  • Dry heat and long exposure
  • High pressure and moist heat (steam)
  • Chemical disinfectants at room temperature
  • UV radiation and airflow

Correct Answer: High pressure and moist heat (steam)

Q5. Which medium is selective for Gram-negative enteric bacteria and differentiates lactose fermenters?

  • Blood agar
  • MacConkey agar
  • Mannitol salt agar
  • Sabouraud dextrose agar

Correct Answer: MacConkey agar

Q6. Beta-lactam antibiotics act by inhibiting which bacterial process?

  • Protein synthesis at 30S ribosome
  • Folate synthesis
  • Peptidoglycan cross-linking (cell wall synthesis)
  • DNA gyrase activity

Correct Answer: Peptidoglycan cross-linking (cell wall synthesis)

Q7. Which enzyme confers resistance to penicillins by hydrolyzing the beta-lactam ring?

  • Aminoglycoside-modifying enzyme
  • Beta-lactamase
  • Ribosomal methylase
  • DNA polymerase

Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase

Q8. The Kirby-Bauer test is used to assess what property of bacteria?

  • Growth rate in liquid medium
  • Antibiotic susceptibility (zone of inhibition)
  • Capsule presence
  • Spore formation

Correct Answer: Antibiotic susceptibility (zone of inhibition)

Q9. Which virus family has a double-stranded DNA genome and enveloped particles?

  • Picornaviridae
  • Herpesviridae
  • Orthomyxoviridae
  • Retroviridae

Correct Answer: Herpesviridae

Q10. Which biochemical test detects the presence of catalase enzyme?

  • Oxidase test
  • Catalase test (bubbling with hydrogen peroxide)
  • Coagulase test
  • Urease test

Correct Answer: Catalase test (bubbling with hydrogen peroxide)

Q11. Endotoxin is associated with which bacterial component?

  • Peptidoglycan
  • Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of Gram-negative outer membrane
  • Exotoxin secreted by Gram-positive bacteria
  • Capsular polysaccharide

Correct Answer: Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of Gram-negative outer membrane

Q12. Which method is commonly used to quantify bacteria in a liquid culture by serial dilution and plating?

  • Direct microscopy counting
  • Colony-forming unit (CFU) counting
  • Flow cytometry
  • ELISA

Correct Answer: Colony-forming unit (CFU) counting

Q13. Which vaccine type contains inactivated whole organisms and often requires adjuvants?

  • Live attenuated vaccine
  • Subunit vaccine
  • Inactivated (killed) vaccine
  • Conjugate vaccine

Correct Answer: Inactivated (killed) vaccine

Q14. PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is primarily used to:

  • Separate proteins by size
  • Amplify specific DNA sequences
  • Measure antimicrobial sensitivity
  • Stain bacteria for microscopy

Correct Answer: Amplify specific DNA sequences

Q15. Which organism is known for forming endospores resistant to heat and disinfectants?

  • Escherichia coli
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Correct Answer: Bacillus anthracis

Q16. Which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?

  • Chloramphenicol
  • Gentamicin
  • Vancomycin
  • Ciprofloxacin

Correct Answer: Gentamicin

Q17. A positive coagulase test helps identify which species?

  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Escherichia coli
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Q18. Which assay is commonly used to detect antigens or antibodies using enzyme-linked reactions?

  • Western blot
  • Flow cytometry
  • ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
  • Gram staining

Correct Answer: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

Q19. Which organism is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections and is often multidrug-resistant?

  • Staphylococcus epidermidis
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • Bacteroides fragilis

Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Q20. Which antifungal targets ergosterol in fungal cell membranes?

  • Penicillin
  • Amphotericin B
  • Rifampicin
  • Metronidazole

Correct Answer: Amphotericin B

Q21. The growth phase where bacteria adapt to a new environment with little or no cell division is called:

  • Log (exponential) phase
  • Stationary phase
  • Lag phase
  • Death phase

Correct Answer: Lag phase

Q22. Which test differentiates Streptococcus pneumoniae from viridans streptococci?

  • Bacitracin sensitivity
  • Optochin sensitivity and bile solubility
  • Catalase test

Correct Answer: Optochin sensitivity and bile solubility

Q23. Which organism lacks a cell wall and is intrinsically resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics?

  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Escherichia coli
  • Clostridium difficile

Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Q24. In viral replication, reverse transcriptase is characteristic of which group?

  • Positive-sense RNA viruses (non-retro)
  • Retroviruses (e.g., HIV)
  • DNA viruses
  • Negative-sense RNA viruses

Correct Answer: Retroviruses (e.g., HIV)

Q25. Which disinfectant is best known for sporicidal activity when used properly?

  • Ethanol 70%
  • Chlorhexidine
  • Glutaraldehyde
  • Soap and water

Correct Answer: Glutaraldehyde

Q26. Which test indicates bacterial fermentation of glucose with acid and gas production?

  • Oxidase test
  • TSI (triple sugar iron) agar test
  • Catalase test
  • Coagulase test

Correct Answer: TSI (triple sugar iron) agar test

Q27. Conjugation in bacteria primarily transfers which genetic element?

  • Chromosomal genes only
  • Plasmids via a sex pilus
  • Viral DNA via transduction
  • Free DNA uptake via transformation

Correct Answer: Plasmids via a sex pilus

Q28. Which protozoan parasite causes malabsorption and chronic diarrhea and is transmitted by contaminated water?

  • Plasmodium falciparum
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Trypanosoma cruzi
  • Entamoeba histolytica

Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

Q29. Which antibiotic class interferes with DNA gyrase in bacteria?

  • Macrolides
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Glycopeptides

Correct Answer: Fluoroquinolones

Q30. Which organism is the primary causative agent of pseudomembranous colitis after antibiotic therapy?

  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium botulinum

Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

Q31. Which serological test detects recent infection by measuring IgM antibodies?

  • Western blot
  • IgM-specific ELISA
  • Culture on selective media
  • Gram staining

Correct Answer: IgM-specific ELISA

Q32. Which of the following organisms is acid-fast positive?

  • Escherichia coli
  • Mycobacterium leprae
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Correct Answer: Mycobacterium leprae

Q33. A bacteriophage-mediated transfer of bacterial DNA is called:

  • Transformation
  • Conjugation
  • Transduction
  • Transposition

Correct Answer: Transduction

Q34. Which nutrient agar is primarily used for fungal isolation in the lab?

  • Blood agar
  • MacConkey agar
  • Sabouraud dextrose agar
  • Chocolate agar

Correct Answer: Sabouraud dextrose agar

Q35. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) resistance is mainly due to:

  • Beta-lactamase overproduction
  • Altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a) encoded by mecA
  • Efflux pumps only
  • Lack of peptidoglycan

Correct Answer: Altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a) encoded by mecA

Q36. Which test distinguishes between Enterococcus and group D streptococci using bile esculin?

  • Bile esculin hydrolysis test
  • Coagulase test
  • Oxidase test
  • Urease test

Correct Answer: Bile esculin hydrolysis test

Q37. Which viral component determines host range and tissue tropism?

  • Capsid proteins and viral surface glycoproteins
  • Viral RNA polymerase only
  • Host ribosomes
  • Peptidoglycan layer

Correct Answer: Capsid proteins and viral surface glycoproteins

Q38. Which antimicrobial is commonly used to treat anaerobic infections like Bacteroides fragilis?

  • Metronidazole
  • Ampicillin
  • Tobramycin
  • Fluconazole

Correct Answer: Metronidazole

Q39. Which lab safety level is appropriate for handling agents like Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

  • BSL-1
  • BSL-2
  • BSL-3
  • BSL-4

Correct Answer: BSL-3

Q40. In ELISA, a color change indicates the presence of which of the following?

  • DNA amplification
  • Antigen-antibody binding detected by an enzyme-substrate reaction
  • Bacterial growth on agar
  • Presence of endotoxin only

Correct Answer: Antigen-antibody binding detected by an enzyme-substrate reaction

Q41. Which of the following is a naked (non-enveloped) DNA virus?

  • Hepatitis B virus
  • Adenovirus
  • Influenza virus
  • HSV-1

Correct Answer: Adenovirus

Q42. Which fungal infection is commonly associated with systemic candidiasis in immunocompromised patients?

  • Aspergillosis
  • Candidemia
  • Dermatophytosis
  • Histoplasmosis

Correct Answer: Candidemia

Q43. Which metabolic pathway is targeted by sulfonamides in bacteria?

  • Peptidoglycan synthesis
  • Folate synthesis (dihydropteroate synthase)
  • Protein synthesis at 50S ribosome
  • DNA replication

Correct Answer: Folate synthesis (dihydropteroate synthase)

Q44. Which diagnostic method provides rapid identification of bacteria by mass spectrometry?

  • MALDI-TOF MS
  • Gram stain
  • ELISA
  • PCR only

Correct Answer: MALDI-TOF MS

Q45. Which phase of bacterial growth is characterized by balanced growth where cell division equals cell death?

  • Lag phase
  • Log (exponential) phase
  • Stationary phase
  • Death phase

Correct Answer: Stationary phase

Q46. Which class of antibiotics is contraindicated in young children due to effects on cartilage development?

  • Macrolides
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Beta-lactams
  • Glycopeptides

Correct Answer: Fluoroquinolones

Q47. Horizontal gene transfer by uptake of naked DNA from the environment is called:

  • Transformation
  • Transduction
  • Conjugation
  • Recombination only

Correct Answer: Transformation

Q48. Which lab technique separates DNA fragments by size using an electric field?

  • Chromatography
  • Gel electrophoresis
  • Flow cytometry
  • Mass spectrometry

Correct Answer: Gel electrophoresis

Q49. Which organism causes rice-water stools in severe watery diarrhea outbreaks?

  • Salmonella typhi
  • Vibrio cholerae
  • Shigella dysenteriae
  • Campylobacter jejuni

Correct Answer: Vibrio cholerae

Q50. Which mechanism do aminoglycosides primarily use to kill bacteria?

  • Inhibit cell wall synthesis
  • Bind 30S ribosomal subunit causing misreading of mRNA
  • Disrupt cell membrane ergosterol
  • Inhibit DNA gyrase

Correct Answer: Bind 30S ribosomal subunit causing misreading of mRNA

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