HIV Infection MCQ Quiz | Infectious Diseases – Viral

Welcome to the HIV Infection MCQ Quiz for MBBS students. This quiz is designed to test your knowledge on the critical aspects of HIV, a key topic in Viral Infectious Diseases. Covering virology, pathogenesis, clinical presentation, diagnosis, and management, these 25 questions will help you consolidate your understanding and prepare for your examinations. After submitting your answers, you will receive your score immediately, with incorrect answers highlighted and correct answers revealed. For your revision, you can also download a PDF copy of all questions along with their correct answers. This tool is intended to be a valuable resource for self-assessment and focused learning. Good luck!

1. What is the primary cellular receptor that HIV-1 uses to gain entry into host T-lymphocytes?

2. Which HIV enzyme is responsible for synthesizing DNA from the viral RNA template, a process unique to retroviruses?

3. The definition of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) in an HIV-positive individual is primarily based on a CD4+ T-cell count below what threshold?

4. Which mode of transmission carries the highest estimated per-act risk of HIV infection?

5. Acute retroviral syndrome, occurring 2-4 weeks after infection, most commonly presents with symptoms resembling what other illness?

6. What is the recommended initial screening test for HIV in most routine clinical settings?

7. Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a positive screening test and differentiate between HIV-1 and HIV-2 infections?

8. A patient with AIDS presents with a non-productive cough, fever, and dyspnea. A chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates. What is the most likely causative organism?

9. An AIDS patient with a CD4 count of 40 cells/μL develops visual field defects. Fundoscopy reveals retinal hemorrhages and exudates, often described as a “pizza-pie” or “cottage cheese with ketchup” appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10. Zidovudine (AZT) belongs to which class of antiretroviral drugs?

11. Which class of antiretroviral drugs works by preventing the cleavage of viral Gag-Pol polyproteins into functional mature proteins?

12. Efavirenz, a commonly used first-generation NNRTI, is particularly known for which potential side effect?

13. Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention typically involves which combination of drugs?

14. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for an occupational needlestick injury from an HIV-positive source should ideally be initiated within how many hours to be most effective?

15. What is the primary goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in a pregnant woman with HIV regarding her infant?

16. Kaposi’s sarcoma, a malignancy characterized by purplish skin nodules and often seen in AIDS patients, is caused by which virus?

17. In addition to the CD4 receptor, HIV requires a co-receptor for entry. Which co-receptor is predominantly used by macrophage-tropic (R5) strains of the virus, which are most common in early infection?

18. The HIV `gag` gene encodes for which group of proteins?

19. Dolutegravir, Raltegravir, and Bictegravir are highly effective antiretroviral drugs that belong to which class?

20. In an infant born to an HIV-positive mother, which test is most appropriate for diagnosis within the first few weeks of life, bypassing the issue of maternal antibodies?

21. An AIDS patient presents with headache, fever, and focal neurological deficits. A contrast-enhanced brain MRI shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions. What is the most likely opportunistic infection?

22. The “window period” in HIV infection refers to the time between:

23. A major long-term metabolic complication associated particularly with older protease inhibitors is:

24. The UNAIDS 95-95-95 target aims for 95% of people living with HIV to know their status, 95% of those diagnosed to receive sustained antiretroviral therapy, and 95% of those on ART to have:

25. Compared to HIV-1, HIV-2 is generally characterized by: