Hepatitis F MCQs With Answer

Hepatitis F MCQs With Answer

This concise, Student-friendly post is tailored for B. Pharm students preparing for pharmacology and therapeutics exams. Although Hepatitis F remains an unconfirmed or hypothetical hepatitis designation in the literature, understanding how to evaluate novel hepatic viruses, diagnostic strategies, pharmacologic management, vaccine development, and safety monitoring is essential. These Hepatitis F MCQs with answer emphasize virology principles, hepatic pharmacokinetics, laboratory interpretation, drug-induced liver injury, antiviral mechanisms, and public-health response—skills crucial for a pharmacist. Clear explanations build competence in clinical decision-making, research appraisal, and patient counseling. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which statement best describes the current scientific status of “Hepatitis F”?

• It is a well-characterized RNA virus with licensed vaccines.
• It is a confirmed DNA virus causing chronic hepatitis worldwide.
• It is a hypothetical or unconfirmed hepatitis designation with limited evidence.
• It is synonymous with Hepatitis E genotype 3.

Correct Answer: It is a hypothetical or unconfirmed hepatitis designation with limited evidence.

Q2. When investigating a suspected novel hepatitis agent like Hepatitis F, which initial laboratory approach is most appropriate for identification?

• Empirical treatment with broad-spectrum antivirals without testing.
• Routine bacterial cultures from blood only.
• Unbiased metagenomic next-generation sequencing on patient samples.
• Immediate vaccination with hepatitis A and B vaccines.

Correct Answer: Unbiased metagenomic next-generation sequencing on patient samples.

Q3. Which clinical feature is most typical for acute viral hepatitis presentations considered when assessing a new hepatitis agent?

• Progressive peripheral neuropathy without liver enzyme changes.
• Jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and elevated ALT/AST.
• Isolated hematuria with normal LFTs.
• Chronic cough and pulmonary infiltrates.

Correct Answer: Jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and elevated ALT/AST.

Q4. For a novel hepatitis virus, which specimen type provides the highest yield for viral RNA detection?

• Urine collected 48 hours after symptom onset.
• Serum or plasma collected during acute phase.
• Hair shafts from the scalp.
• Saliva collected one month after recovery.

Correct Answer: Serum or plasma collected during acute phase.

Q5. Which diagnostic method differentiates past infection from current infection for classical hepatitis viruses and would be essential when studying Hepatitis F seroepidemiology?

• Complete blood count only.
• Serology distinguishing IgM vs IgG antibodies.
• Chest X-ray.
• Urinalysis for bilirubin.

Correct Answer: Serology distinguishing IgM vs IgG antibodies.

Q6. Which liver enzyme pattern suggests hepatocellular injury commonly seen in viral hepatitis evaluation?

• Predominant elevation of alkaline phosphatase with normal ALT.
• Marked elevation of ALT and AST relative to alkaline phosphatase.
• Isolated hypoalbuminemia only.
• Elevated creatinine kinase with normal liver enzymes.

Correct Answer: Marked elevation of ALT and AST relative to alkaline phosphatase.

Q7. When researching a putative Hepatitis F, which epidemiologic study design is best to identify risk factors during an outbreak?

• Cross-sectional study conducted years after the outbreak.
• Randomized controlled trial assigning exposure.
• Case-control study comparing exposures of cases and matched controls.
• Ecologic study using country-level aggregated data only.

Correct Answer: Case-control study comparing exposures of cases and matched controls.

Q8. Which biosafety practice is essential when handling clinical samples potentially containing an unknown hepatitis virus?

• Processing samples on an open bench with no PPE if they appear clear.
• Use of appropriate biosafety cabinet, gloves, masks, and sharps precautions.
• Autoclave samples only after manual aliquoting without gloves.
• Freezing samples at -20°C in a shared freezer without labeling.

Correct Answer: Use of appropriate biosafety cabinet, gloves, masks, and sharps precautions.

Q9. Which molecular target is commonly exploited when designing antiviral nucleoside analogues for RNA hepatitis viruses?

• Bacterial cell wall synthesis enzymes.
• Viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase active site.
• Cytosolic ribosomal 60S subunit.
• Host DNA topoisomerase II.

Correct Answer: Viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase active site.

Q10. For a pharmacist, why is understanding liver metabolism important when advising on medications in a patient with acute hepatitis symptoms?

• Liver metabolism does not affect drug dosing.
• Impaired hepatic metabolism can increase drug levels and toxicity.
• Hepatitis only affects vitamin absorption, not drug clearance.
• Renal excretion always compensates for liver dysfunction.

Correct Answer: Impaired hepatic metabolism can increase drug levels and toxicity.

Q11. Which monitoring parameter is crucial when a patient with viral hepatitis is started on a potentially hepatotoxic drug?

• Regular measurement of serum ALT, AST, and bilirubin levels.
• Weekly hemoglobin electrophoresis.
• Daily ECG monitoring regardless of drug class.
• Monthly pulmonary function tests.

Correct Answer: Regular measurement of serum ALT, AST, and bilirubin levels.

Q12. Which antiviral strategy would be least likely useful against an unknown hepatitis virus until its replication mechanism is known?

• Targeted polymerase inhibitors designed after sequencing.
• Broad-spectrum interferon-based immunotherapy in controlled trials.
• Empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics.
• Monoclonal antibodies developed after antigen identification.

Correct Answer: Empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics.

Q13. Which pharmacokinetic change commonly occurs in patients with severe hepatic dysfunction?

• Increased first-pass metabolism leading to lower oral bioavailability.
• Reduced hepatic clearance leading to prolonged half-life of hepatically cleared drugs.
• Complete compensation by enhanced renal clearance for all drugs.
• No change in protein binding for highly protein-bound drugs.

Correct Answer: Reduced hepatic clearance leading to prolonged half-life of hepatically cleared drugs.

Q14. Which vaccine development phase focuses primarily on safety and immunogenicity in a small group of healthy volunteers?

• Phase IV post-marketing surveillance.
• Phase I clinical trials.
• Phase III large-scale efficacy trials.
• Preclinical animal testing only.

Correct Answer: Phase I clinical trials.

Q15. Which serologic finding would suggest recent acute infection if a specific IgM assay is available for a new hepatitis virus?

• Presence of specific IgG only.
• Presence of specific IgM antibodies.
• Low albumin with no antibodies detected.
• Elevated creatinine with negative antibodies.

Correct Answer: Presence of specific IgM antibodies.

Q16. Which histopathologic feature is commonly seen in viral hepatitis and would be examined in liver biopsy when characterizing a new hepatitis?

• Portal and lobular lymphocytic infiltration with hepatocyte necrosis.
• Glomerular crescents with no liver inflammation.
• Interstitial lung fibrosis pattern in liver tissue.
• Normal hepatic architecture with fat only.

Correct Answer: Portal and lobular lymphocytic infiltration with hepatocyte necrosis.

Q17. Which statement about chronicity risk is appropriate when assessing an uncharacterized hepatitis agent?

• All novel hepatitis agents invariably cause chronic infection in 90% of cases.
• Chronicity risk depends on viral properties, host immunity, and age at infection.
• Chronic infection can be diagnosed based on a single transient ALT elevation.
• Chronicity is irrelevant for public health planning.

Correct Answer: Chronicity risk depends on viral properties, host immunity, and age at infection.

Q18. Which public-health measure is most important during an outbreak of an unknown hepatitis-like illness?

• Immediate cessation of all food imports without investigation.
• Rapid case identification, contact tracing, and source investigation.
• Removing all vaccines from clinics.
• Quarantine of all asymptomatic healthcare workers indefinitely.

Correct Answer: Rapid case identification, contact tracing, and source investigation.

Q19. Which laboratory technique would allow confirmation that a detected viral sequence is associated with disease rather than a harmless commensal?

• Detection of identical viral sequence in unrelated environmental samples only.
• Demonstration of higher viral loads in symptomatic cases versus controls and temporal association with illness.
• Reliance solely on seroprevalence without clinical correlation.
• Measuring glucose levels in patients.

Correct Answer: Demonstration of higher viral loads in symptomatic cases versus controls and temporal association with illness.

Q20. Which statement about cross-reactivity is important when developing serologic tests for a novel hepatitis agent?

• Cross-reactivity is desirable because it increases sensitivity for any virus.
• Cross-reactivity may cause false positives if antibodies against known hepatitis viruses bind to the new antigen.
• Cross-reactivity only occurs with bacterial antigens, not viral.
• Cross-reactivity eliminates the need for confirmatory molecular tests.

Correct Answer: Cross-reactivity may cause false positives if antibodies against known hepatitis viruses bind to the new antigen.

Q21. Which antiviral mechanism reduces viral infectivity by preventing virion entry into hepatocytes?

• Nucleoside analogues that inhibit polymerase inside the cell.
• Protease inhibitors that block viral polyprotein processing only after replication.
• Entry inhibitors or neutralizing monoclonal antibodies targeting viral surface proteins.
• Antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall.

Correct Answer: Entry inhibitors or neutralizing monoclonal antibodies targeting viral surface proteins.

Q22. When counseling patients about hepatitis symptoms, which point is most appropriate for a community pharmacist?

• Ignore jaundice; it always resolves without evaluation.
• Advise urgent medical evaluation if jaundice, dark urine, or severe abdominal pain occurs.
• Recommend stopping all prescription medications immediately without consulting a physician.
• Suggest herbal detox regimens as first-line therapy.

Correct Answer: Advise urgent medical evaluation if jaundice, dark urine, or severe abdominal pain occurs.

Q23. Which antivirals approved for other hepatitis viruses might provide a starting point for repurposing against a novel hepatitis if the replication enzyme is similar?

• Nucleos(t)ide analogues targeting viral polymerases.
• Broad-spectrum antifungals like fluconazole.
• Topical antivirals used for skin warts only.
• Antiparasitic agents with no antiviral activity.

Correct Answer: Nucleos(t)ide analogues targeting viral polymerases.

Q24. Which adverse effect of interferon therapy is important for pharmacists to monitor?

• Hypertension without other symptoms.
• Neuropsychiatric symptoms including depression and cytopenias.
• Immediate renal failure in all patients.
• Painless hyperpigmentation only.

Correct Answer: Neuropsychiatric symptoms including depression and cytopenias.

Q25. Which is the best laboratory marker to assess hepatic synthetic function relevant to drug dosing?

• Prothrombin time/INR and serum albumin.
• Blood glucose alone.
• Urine specific gravity.
• Serum amylase only.

Correct Answer: Prothrombin time/INR and serum albumin.

Q26. Which statement about drug-induced liver injury (DILI) is correct?

• DILI only occurs after decades of therapy.
• DILI may present with hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed patterns and can mimic viral hepatitis.
• DILI is easily distinguished from viral hepatitis by a single blood test.
• All herbal products are safe and never cause DILI.

Correct Answer: DILI may present with hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed patterns and can mimic viral hepatitis.

Q27. Which pharmacologic principle is important when dosing a drug that is extensively metabolized by CYP3A4 in a patient with hepatic impairment?

• No dose adjustment is ever needed for hepatic impairment.
• Consider dose reduction or alternative agents due to reduced metabolic capacity and potential drug interactions.
• CYP3A4 activity always increases in liver disease, so increase dose.
• Hepatic impairment affects only renal drug elimination.

Correct Answer: Consider dose reduction or alternative agents due to reduced metabolic capacity and potential drug interactions.

Q28. Which surveillance measure helps estimate population exposure to a novel hepatitis agent?

• Wastewater surveillance and seroprevalence studies.
• Only hospital billing data without clinical correlation.
• Counting the number of pharmacists in a city.
• Monitoring sales of antacids exclusively.

Correct Answer: Wastewater surveillance and seroprevalence studies.

Q29. Which ethical consideration is paramount when conducting research on patients with suspected Hepatitis F?

• Conduct studies without consent to speed up results.
• Ensure informed consent, confidentiality, and risk minimization in vulnerable populations.
• Exclude reporting of serious adverse events to avoid alarm.
• Prioritize publication speed over participant safety.

Correct Answer: Ensure informed consent, confidentiality, and risk minimization in vulnerable populations.

Q30. Which pharmacovigilance action should a pharmacist take when a patient reports suspected hepatotoxicity after starting a new drug?

• Ignore the report if the drug is over-the-counter.
• Report the adverse event to the national pharmacovigilance center and advise medical evaluation.
• Advise the patient to continue the drug without consultation.
• Notify social media without de-identifying patient data.

Correct Answer: Report the adverse event to the national pharmacovigilance center and advise medical evaluation.

Q31. Which feature distinguishes fulminant hepatic failure from uncomplicated acute hepatitis?

• Rapid development of hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy within weeks.
• Only mild nausea with normal INR.
• Isolated chronic fatigue for years without lab abnormalities.
• Presence of cough and sputum production only.

Correct Answer: Rapid development of hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy within weeks.

Q32. Which quality control measure is critical for molecular assays developed for a novel hepatitis agent?

• No need for external controls if internal control is present.
• Inclusion of positive and negative controls plus external proficiency testing.
• Using undiluted patient samples as standards.
• Relying solely on visual color change without controls.

Correct Answer: Inclusion of positive and negative controls plus external proficiency testing.

Q33. Which factor increases the likelihood that a newly identified viral sequence is a true human pathogen?

• The sequence is found only in healthy controls and never in cases.
• Experimental infection in an appropriate animal model produces similar disease features.
• The virus cannot be detected by any method.
• The sequence differs from known viruses by a single nucleotide only.

Correct Answer: Experimental infection in an appropriate animal model produces similar disease features.

Q34. Which counseling point is important for patients receiving hepatically cleared antivirals?

• Always take the medication with grapefruit juice to enhance absorption.
• Inform about potential drug interactions, avoid alcohol, and report side effects promptly.
• Stop all other medications without consulting a clinician.
• Double the dose if symptoms persist after one day.

Correct Answer: Inform about potential drug interactions, avoid alcohol, and report side effects promptly.

Q35. Which marker is more specific for cholestatic liver injury than hepatocellular injury?

• ALT predominance over alkaline phosphatase.
• Marked elevation of alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase.
• Isolated high creatine kinase.
• Low hemoglobin alone.

Correct Answer: Marked elevation of alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase.

Q36. Which laboratory pattern often indicates alcoholic liver disease rather than viral hepatitis?

• AST:ALT ratio greater than 2 with moderate elevations.
• ALT dramatically higher than AST by 10-fold.
• Isolated elevated bilirubin with normal transaminases.
• Markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase only.

Correct Answer: AST:ALT ratio greater than 2 with moderate elevations.

Q37. Which is the main reason to perform genetic sequencing of a novel hepatitis virus genome?

• To immediately approve a drug without trials.
• To characterize viral taxonomy, identify drug targets, and design diagnostics.
• Sequencing has no role in infectious disease investigations.
• To replace all serologic testing permanently.

Correct Answer: To characterize viral taxonomy, identify drug targets, and design diagnostics.

Q38. Which clinical sign suggests portal hypertension secondary to chronic liver disease rather than acute viral hepatitis?

• Splenomegaly, ascites, and variceal bleeding.
• Transient mild fever only.
• Acute cough and sore throat.
• Isolated muscle spasm.

Correct Answer: Splenomegaly, ascites, and variceal bleeding.

Q39. Which factor would most strongly argue against a novel virus as the cause of an outbreak?

• Consistent exposure history among cases and detection of a new virus in cases.
• Absence of any plausible pathogen in cases despite exhaustive testing and identification of a chemical toxin instead.
• Temporal clustering of cases around a single event.
• Reproducible detection of the same viral sequence in multiple cases.

Correct Answer: Absence of any plausible pathogen in cases despite exhaustive testing and identification of a chemical toxin instead.

Q40. Which pharmacologic class includes drugs that may require dose reduction in severe hepatic impairment due to high hepatic extraction ratio?

• Drugs primarily excreted unchanged in urine only.
• High-extraction drugs with significant first-pass metabolism.
• Drugs with zero hepatic metabolism and no protein binding.
• Inhaled anesthetics exclusively.

Correct Answer: High-extraction drugs with significant first-pass metabolism.

Q41. Which approach helps differentiate acute viral hepatitis from exacerbation of chronic hepatitis?

• Single elevated ALT without history is diagnostic of chronic exacerbation.
• Assess serial liver enzymes, prior serology, and clinical history for baseline chronic markers.
• Rely only on patient-reported fatigue duration.
• Assume chronic disease if the patient is over 30 years old.

Correct Answer: Assess serial liver enzymes, prior serology, and clinical history for baseline chronic markers.

Q42. Which regulatory requirement is essential before initiating clinical trials of a candidate vaccine against a novel hepatitis agent?

• No preclinical data are needed if there is an urgent outbreak.
• Comprehensive preclinical safety and immunogenicity data in relevant models and regulatory approvals.
• Only marketing authorization is required, skipping trials.
• Human trials can start based on theoretical models alone.

Correct Answer: Comprehensive preclinical safety and immunogenicity data in relevant models and regulatory approvals.

Q43. Which biochemical ratio is commonly elevated in viral hepatitis with hepatocellular injury?

• Albumin:globulin ratio always above normal.
• ALT:AST ratio greater than 2 in viral hepatitis.
• ALT often higher than AST (ALT>AST) in many acute viral hepatitis cases.
• Cholesterol:triglyceride ratio diagnostic of viral hepatitis.

Correct Answer: ALT often higher than AST (ALT>AST) in many acute viral hepatitis cases.

Q44. Which approach reduces the risk of transfusion-associated transmission when the causative agent is unknown?

• Stop all blood donations permanently.
• Implement donor screening questionnaires, quarantine of blood, and pathogen-reduction technologies when possible.
• Use only whole blood without testing.
• Assume all donors are infected and discard all blood routinely.

Correct Answer: Implement donor screening questionnaires, quarantine of blood, and pathogen-reduction technologies when possible.

Q45. Which statement about zoonotic origin investigation is relevant for a novel hepatitis agent?

• Zoonotic sources are never responsible for human hepatitis viruses.
• Investigating animal reservoirs and human–animal interfaces can identify spillover risks.
• Only plant viruses are considered in hepatitis outbreaks.
• Zoonotic investigations should be avoided due to ethical concerns.

Correct Answer: Investigating animal reservoirs and human–animal interfaces can identify spillover risks.

Q46. Which drug interaction concern is most relevant with hepatically metabolized antivirals?

• Concomitant use of strong CYP inducers may reduce antiviral concentrations and efficacy.
• CYP inducers only affect renal clearance, not antivirals.
• All herbals enhance antiviral activity safely.
• Drug interactions are negligible for all antivirals.

Correct Answer: Concomitant use of strong CYP inducers may reduce antiviral concentrations and efficacy.

Q47. Which sample handling practice preserves RNA integrity for downstream sequencing of a suspected RNA hepatitis virus?

• Storing serum at room temperature for several days before processing.
• Immediate cold-chain preservation (4°C short-term or −80°C long-term) with RNA stabilizers if available.
• Repeated freeze-thaw cycles to enhance detection.
• Exposing samples to sunlight to inactivate bacteria.

Correct Answer: Immediate cold-chain preservation (4°C short-term or −80°C long-term) with RNA stabilizers if available.

Q48. Which patient population is typically prioritized for passive immunoprophylaxis if exposed to a newly characterized hepatitis virus and a specific immunoglobulin is available?

• Healthy adults with no comorbidities only.
• High-risk groups such as neonates, immunocompromised persons, and post-exposure individuals.
• Only individuals with resolved infection from any hepatitis virus.
• Everyone regardless of exposure or risk, indefinitely.

Correct Answer: High-risk groups such as neonates, immunocompromised persons, and post-exposure individuals.

Q49. Which outcome measure is most important in phase III vaccine efficacy trials for a hepatitis virus?

• Reduction in laboratory-confirmed symptomatic infection compared to placebo or control.
• Change in participants’ hair color after vaccination.
• Increase in local pharmacy sales of unrelated medications.
• Immediate elimination of all liver disease worldwide.

Correct Answer: Reduction in laboratory-confirmed symptomatic infection compared to placebo or control.

Q50. Which interdisciplinary collaboration is key when characterizing and responding to an emerging hepatitis agent like Hepatitis F?

• Only pharmacists working in isolation.
• Collaboration among clinicians, virologists, epidemiologists, public-health officials, and pharmacists.
• Only veterinary services without human health input.
• Marketing teams focusing solely on product branding.

Correct Answer: Collaboration among clinicians, virologists, epidemiologists, public-health officials, and pharmacists.

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