Health promotion activities: family planning and screening MCQs With Answer

Introduction

Health promotion activities: family planning and screening MCQs With Answer is designed for M.Pharm students to deepen understanding of community-level reproductive health strategies and population screening programs. This collection emphasizes clinical knowledge, public health principles, counseling skills, and the pharmacological aspects of contraceptives and screening interventions. Questions cover eligibility criteria, mechanism of action, adverse effects, programmatic screening standards, interpretation of screening test performance, and integration of services in community and hospital pharmacy practice. These MCQs aim to prepare students for academic exams and practical roles in medication counseling, public health campaigns, and collaborative primary care initiatives.

Q1. Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of copper intrauterine devices (Cu-IUDs)?

• Inhibition of ovulation by systemic progestogenic effect
• Local inflammatory reaction in the endometrium toxic to sperm and ova
• Thickening of cervical mucus preventing sperm passage
• Creating an endocrine feedback loop suppressing follicular development

Correct Answer: Local inflammatory reaction in the endometrium toxic to sperm and ova

Q2. Which set of criteria comprises Wilson and Jungner’s classic principles for an appropriate screening program?

• High test cost, low disease prevalence, no effective treatment
• Important health problem, recognizable latent stage, accepted treatment
• Universal screening accepted, mandatory reporting, immediate treatment
• High specificity only, public awareness campaigns, voluntary testing

Correct Answer: Important health problem, recognizable latent stage, accepted treatment

Q3. Which of the following defines screening test sensitivity?

• Proportion of true negatives correctly identified by the test
• Proportion of diseased individuals correctly identified as positive
• Proportion of positive tests that are false positives
• Proportion of the population that undergoes the test

Correct Answer: Proportion of diseased individuals correctly identified as positive

Q4. According to WHO eligibility criteria, which condition is a contraindication for combined estrogen–progestin oral contraceptives?

• Well-controlled migraine without aura in a young woman
• History of deep vein thrombosis within the past year
• Current breastfeeding after 6 months postpartum
• Polycystic ovary syndrome with irregular menses

Correct Answer: History of deep vein thrombosis within the past year

Q5. Which counseling framework is commonly recommended for family-planning services to ensure informed choice and quality communication?

• GATHER (Greet, Ask, Tell, Help, Explain, Return)
• S.T.O.P. (Summarize, Terminate, Order, Provide)
• PRIOR (Provide, Reassure, Insist, Offer, Refer)
• FAST (Facilitate, Ask, Screen, Terminate)

Correct Answer: GATHER (Greet, Ask, Tell, Help, Explain, Return)

Q6. Which emergency contraception regimen is recommended within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse and uses a progestin-only approach?

• Combined oral contraceptive Yuzpe regimen
• Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg single dose
• Ulipristal acetate 30 mg single dose
• Insertion of copper IUD only after 120 hours

Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg single dose

Q7. Which statement about population screening and positive predictive value (PPV) is correct?

• PPV is independent of disease prevalence in the screened population
• PPV decreases as disease prevalence decreases
• PPV equals sensitivity multiplied by specificity
• PPV is the rate of true negatives among all negative tests

Correct Answer: PPV decreases as disease prevalence decreases

Q8. Which family planning method is most appropriate as an immediate postpartum option (within 10 minutes of placental delivery) for a woman desiring long-term reversible contraception?

• Subdermal etonogestrel implant inserted 6 weeks postpartum
• Copper IUD insertion as immediate postpartum intrauterine device
• Combined oral contraceptive started immediately postpartum
• Transcervical sterilization performed during breastfeeding

Correct Answer: Copper IUD insertion as immediate postpartum intrauterine device

Q9. Which screening test is the primary recommended method for cervical cancer screening in many national programs due to higher sensitivity than cytology?

• HPV DNA testing
• Visual inspection with acetic acid (VIA)
• Conventional Pap smear alone
• Colposcopy as a primary population screen

Correct Answer: HPV DNA testing

Q10. Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injectable contraceptive?

• Increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
• Marked immediate blood pressure elevation
• Weight gain and menstrual irregularities (amenorrhea)
• Frequent severe vaginal infections due to estrogen depletion

Correct Answer: Weight gain and menstrual irregularities (amenorrhea)

Q11. Which principle is essential when integrating family planning services into existing community health programs?

• Delivering family planning only through specialized tertiary centers
• Ensuring voluntariness, informed consent, and client-centered choice
• Mandating a single contraceptive method for all eligible clients
• Prioritizing cost recovery over accessibility in low-resource areas

Correct Answer: Ensuring voluntariness, informed consent, and client-centered choice

Q12. Which neonatal screening disorder is typically screened for using a dried blood spot collected at 24–72 hours of life?

• Congenital cytomegalovirus infection
• Phenylketonuria (PKU) and congenital hypothyroidism
• Neonatal HIV infection
• Congenital heart defects by pulse oximetry

Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria (PKU) and congenital hypothyroidism

Q13. Which of the following is a major limitation of mass screening programs for low-prevalence conditions?

• High positive predictive value even with low specificity
• High rate of false positives leading to unnecessary follow-up
• Reduced sensitivity in high-prevalence subgroups
• Guaranteed cost-effectiveness across all settings

Correct Answer: High rate of false positives leading to unnecessary follow-up

Q14. Which contraceptive method is most appropriate for a woman with uncontrolled hypertension (systolic ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic ≥100 mm Hg)?

• Combined oral contraceptives
• Estrogen patch
• Progestin-only methods (implant, injection, or mini-pill)
• Hormonal intrauterine system with levonorgestrel

Correct Answer: Progestin-only methods (implant, injection, or mini-pill)

Q15. Which screening strategy is recommended for breast cancer in women aged 50–69 years in many national programs to maximize population benefit?

• Clinical breast exam every six months without imaging
• Routine mammography every 1–2 years
• Universal MRI screening annually for all women
• Self-breast examination only

Correct Answer: Routine mammography every 1–2 years

Q16. Which statement best reflects the role of the pharmacist in family planning and screening programs?

• Pharmacists should prescribe all contraceptives without referral
• Pharmacists can provide counseling, ensure safe dispensing, and refer for screening and follow-up
• Pharmacists must limit interactions to dispensing and avoid counseling
• Pharmacists should only sell over-the-counter methods and not participate in public health campaigns

Correct Answer: Pharmacists can provide counseling, ensure safe dispensing, and refer for screening and follow-up

Q17. Which of the following best describes lead-time bias in screening program evaluation?

• Apparent increase in survival time because the disease is detected earlier without altering the course
• Reduction in disease incidence due to effective screening
• Bias introduced when only high-risk groups are screened
• Overestimation of test specificity due to verification bias

Correct Answer: Apparent increase in survival time because the disease is detected earlier without altering the course

Q18. Which long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC) is most effective in preventing pregnancy for up to 3 years and is a single-rod subdermal implant?

• Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)
• Etonogestrel implant (single-rod)
• Copper T 380A IUD
• DMPA intramuscular injection

Correct Answer: Etonogestrel implant (single-rod)

Q19. Which screening approach uses application of 3–5% acetic acid to cervix to identify suspicious lesions, commonly used in low-resource settings?

• HPV DNA testing
• VIA (Visual Inspection with Acetic Acid)
• Liquid-based cytology
• Colposcopy-guided biopsy

Correct Answer: VIA (Visual Inspection with Acetic Acid)

Q20. Which vaccination is recommended for preadolescent girls and boys to prevent infections that can lead to cervical and other anogenital cancers, and is most effective when given before sexual debut?

• Hepatitis B vaccine
• Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine
• Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
• Varicella vaccine

Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine

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