General Anesthesia MCQ Quiz | Anesthetic Techniques

Welcome to the General Anesthesia quiz, a vital component of the Anesthetic Techniques curriculum for MBBS students. This quiz is meticulously designed to test your understanding of the fundamental principles and practices of general anesthesia. You will be challenged on topics including the stages of anesthesia, the pharmacology of various anesthetic agents, patient monitoring, airway management, and potential complications. This assessment consists of 25 multiple-choice questions, each aimed at reinforcing key concepts essential for clinical practice. After submitting your answers, you will receive your score and a detailed review of the correct responses. For your future reference and study, an option to download all questions with their correct answers in PDF format is also available.

1. Which of Guedel’s stages of anesthesia is known as the “stage of excitement or delirium”?

Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV

2. The Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalational anesthetic is a measure of its:

Potency Solubility Speed of onset Analgesic effect

3. A low blood:gas partition coefficient for an inhalational anesthetic, like Desflurane, implies:

High potency Slow induction and recovery Rapid induction and recovery High risk of cardiotoxicity

4. Which intravenous anesthetic agent is known for causing dissociative anesthesia, characterized by catalepsy, amnesia, and analgesia?

Propofol Etomidate Thiopental Ketamine

5. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for Propofol?

Potentiation of GABA-A receptor activity NMDA receptor antagonism Alpha-2 adrenergic agonism Dopamine receptor blockade

6. Malignant hyperthermia, a rare but life-threatening complication of general anesthesia, is most commonly triggered by succinylcholine and which other class of drugs?

Opioids Volatile halogenated anesthetics Benzodiazepines Barbiturates

7. The specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia is:

Naloxone Flumazenil Dantrolene Sodium Bicarbonate

8. Which of the following is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent?

Succinylcholine Rocuronium Vecuronium Atracurium

9. Reversal of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade can be achieved by administering an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor like neostigmine, which is typically co-administered with which drug to counteract its muscarinic side effects?

Ephedrine Glycopyrrolate Sugammadex Lidocaine

10. According to the ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) physical status classification system, a patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is classified as:

ASA II ASA III ASA V ASA IV

11. The “second gas effect” is a phenomenon most prominently associated with the use of which inhalational anesthetic?

Isoflurane Nitrous Oxide Sevoflurane Desflurane

12. Emergence delirium is a common side effect in children following anesthesia with which agent?

Propofol Isoflurane Sevoflurane Fentanyl

13. Etomidate is a popular induction agent, especially in hemodynamically unstable patients, but its repeated use is limited due to its inhibitory effect on:

Myocardial contractility Hepatic microsomal enzymes Platelet aggregation Adrenocortical function

14. What does capnography (EtCO2 monitoring) primarily measure?

Carbon dioxide concentration in expired air Oxygen saturation in arterial blood Arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure (PaCO2) Respiratory rate

15. The most reliable method to confirm correct placement of an endotracheal tube is:

Chest auscultation Visualization of chest rise Persistent end-tidal CO2 detection Condensation in the tube

16. The Meyer-Overton theory correlates the potency of an anesthetic agent with its:

Lipid solubility Molecular weight Vapor pressure Water solubility

17. Which induction agent provides profound analgesia and is beneficial for patients with reactive airway disease due to its bronchodilatory properties?

Propofol Ketamine Etomidate Midazolam

18. In the context of pharmacokinetics, “context-sensitive half-time” refers to:

The time taken for drug metabolism in the liver The time for plasma concentration to fall by 50% after stopping a continuous infusion The half-life of a drug after a single bolus dose The time required for 50% of the drug to be excreted by the kidneys

19. Which of the following is NOT a sign of Stage III (Surgical Anesthesia) of Guedel’s classification?

Loss of eyelash reflex Roving eyeballs that become fixed Regular, rhythmic breathing Dilated, non-reactive pupils

20. A patient undergoing anesthesia experiences a sudden, unexplained rise in end-tidal CO2, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, and hyperthermia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Malignant Hyperthermia Anaphylactic shock Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome Sepsis

21. The cuffed oropharyngeal airway, also known as a Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA), is typically placed in the:

Trachea Esophagus Hypopharynx Nasopharynx

22. Which of the following opioid analgesics has the most rapid onset and shortest duration of action, making it suitable for intraoperative use?

Morphine Fentanyl Sufentanil Remifentanil

23. The ‘Cormack-Lehane’ grading system is used to classify the view obtained during:

Bronchoscopy Direct laryngoscopy LMA placement Cricothyroidotomy

24. Diffusion hypoxia is a risk during recovery from anesthesia with which agent, if supplemental oxygen is not provided?

Nitrous Oxide Sevoflurane Propofol Ketamine

25. Thiopental, a barbiturate induction agent, should be used with extreme caution or avoided in patients with:

Hypertension Diabetes Mellitus Asthma Acute intermittent porphyria