Functions of male reproductive system MCQs With Answer

Functions of male reproductive system MCQs With Answer — This concise, SEO-focused introduction helps B. Pharm students master core concepts of the male reproductive system, including anatomy, spermatogenesis, hormonal regulation, accessory gland functions, semen composition and clinical implications. Emphasis is placed on mechanisms of testosterone synthesis, roles of Sertoli and Leydig cells, thermoregulation, sperm maturation, erection and ejaculation physiology, and relevant pharmacology and pathology. These targeted MCQs with explanations reinforce classroom learning, exam preparation and practical pharmacy applications. Keywords: male reproductive system, spermatogenesis, testosterone, accessory glands, semen analysis, pharmacology. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which cells in the testes are primarily responsible for testosterone synthesis?

  • Sertoli cells
  • Germ cells
  • Leydig cells
  • Peritubular myoid cells

Correct Answer: Leydig cells

Q2. Where does spermatogenesis occur within the testis?

  • Efferent ducts
  • Seminiferous tubules
  • Epididymis
  • Rete testis

Correct Answer: Seminiferous tubules

Q3. Which hormone from the anterior pituitary stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone?

  • FSH
  • LH
  • Prolactin
  • ACTH

Correct Answer: LH

Q4. What is the main role of Sertoli cells in the male reproductive system?

  • Secreting testosterone into circulation
  • Supporting and nourishing developing germ cells
  • Transporting sperm through vas deferens
  • Producing seminal fluid volume

Correct Answer: Supporting and nourishing developing germ cells

Q5. Which protein produced by Sertoli cells binds testosterone and dihydrotestosterone in seminiferous tubules?

  • Albumin
  • Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)
  • Androgen-binding protein (ABP)
  • Transferrin

Correct Answer: Androgen-binding protein (ABP)

Q6. During spermatogenesis, meiosis results in gametes with which chromosome number?

  • Diploid (2n)
  • Haploid (n)
  • Tetraploid (4n)
  • Polyploid (>4n)

Correct Answer: Haploid (n)

Q7. What is the primary energy substrate provided by seminal vesicles for sperm motility?

  • Lactic acid
  • Fructose
  • Glucose-6-phosphate
  • Glycogen

Correct Answer: Fructose

Q8. Which enzyme from the prostate aids semen liquefaction by breaking down seminogelin?

  • Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
  • Acid phosphatase
  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Hyaluronidase

Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

Q9. Which structure is the primary site of sperm maturation and storage?

  • Efferent ductules
  • Epididymis
  • Vas deferens
  • Seminal vesicle

Correct Answer: Epididymis

Q10. Inhibition of which enzyme class increases cGMP to promote erection?

  • Cyclooxygenases
  • Phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5)
  • Adenylate cyclases
  • Monoamine oxidases

Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5)

Q11. Which hormone provides negative feedback on FSH secretion via inhibin?

  • LH from Leydig cells
  • Testosterone from Leydig cells
  • Inhibin from Sertoli cells
  • Prolactin from pituitary

Correct Answer: Inhibin from Sertoli cells

Q12. What is the normal pH of semen important for sperm function?

  • Acidic (pH < 5)
  • Neutral (pH 7.0)
  • Slightly alkaline (pH 7.2–8.0)
  • Strongly alkaline (pH > 9.0)

Correct Answer: Slightly alkaline (pH 7.2–8.0)

Q13. Which portion of sperm contains mitochondria to power motility?

  • Acrosome
  • Head
  • Midpiece
  • Principal piece of tail

Correct Answer: Midpiece

Q14. What is the role of the acrosome in fertilization?

  • Provide motility
  • Release enzymes to penetrate zona pellucida
  • Produce testosterone
  • Transport sperm to epididymis

Correct Answer: Release enzymes to penetrate zona pellucida

Q15. Which condition describes failure of testicular descent into the scrotum?

  • Varicocele
  • Hydrocele
  • Cryptorchidism
  • Orchitis

Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

Q16. Which drug class used in prostate cancer blocks androgen receptors?

  • 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
  • GnRH agonists
  • Antiandrogens (androgen receptor antagonists)
  • Estrogen receptor modulators

Correct Answer: Antiandrogens (androgen receptor antagonists)

Q17. Which enzyme converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in target tissues?

  • Aromatase
  • 5-alpha-reductase
  • 17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
  • CYP3A4

Correct Answer: 5-alpha-reductase

Q18. Which accessory gland contributes the largest volume to ejaculate?

  • Prostate gland
  • Bulbourethral gland
  • Seminal vesicles
  • Testes

Correct Answer: Seminal vesicles

Q19. Which parameter is NOT part of a standard semen analysis?

  • Sperm concentration
  • Motility
  • Serum testosterone levels
  • Morphology

Correct Answer: Serum testosterone levels

Q20. Which neurotransmitter mediates penile smooth muscle relaxation leading to erection?

  • Norepinephrine
  • Dopamine
  • Acetylcholine via nitric oxide (NO)
  • Serotonin

Correct Answer: Acetylcholine via nitric oxide (NO)

Q21. Which of the following is a common cause of obstructive azoospermia?

  • Y chromosome microdeletion
  • Retrograde ejaculation
  • Vasectomy
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

Correct Answer: Vasectomy

Q22. Which binding protein in blood primarily carries testosterone to tissues?

  • Transferrin
  • Albumin
  • Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)
  • Corticosteroid-binding globulin

Correct Answer: Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG)

Q23. Which process in the epididymis is crucial for sperm acquiring motility and fertilizing capacity?

  • Hyperplasia
  • Maturation and membrane remodeling
  • Meiotic division
  • Testosterone synthesis

Correct Answer: Maturation and membrane remodeling

Q24. What is the principal clinical use of measuring serum PSA?

  • Assess testicular testosterone production
  • Screen for prostate disease, including cancer
  • Evaluate epididymal function
  • Diagnose varicocele

Correct Answer: Screen for prostate disease, including cancer

Q25. Which of the following reduces dihydrotestosterone formation and is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia?

  • Finasteride
  • Sildenafil
  • Leuprolide
  • Flutamide

Correct Answer: Finasteride

Q26. Which condition is characterized by dilated pampiniform plexus veins and can impair spermatogenesis?

  • Hydrocele
  • Varicocele
  • Orchitis
  • Testicular torsion

Correct Answer: Varicocele

Q27. Which fetal gene on the Y chromosome triggers male sex differentiation?

  • SRY (sex-determining region Y)
  • SOX9
  • WNT4
  • SRD5A2

Correct Answer: SRY (sex-determining region Y)

Q28. What is the major plasma hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis indirectly via Sertoli cells?

  • Prolactin
  • FSH
  • Oxytocin
  • Melatonin

Correct Answer: FSH

Q29. Which test assesses male fertility by evaluating sperm DNA integrity?

  • Standard semen culture
  • Sperm DNA fragmentation assay
  • Urine toxicology
  • Prostate biopsy

Correct Answer: Sperm DNA fragmentation assay

Q30. Which therapy is used for hypogonadotropic hypogonadism to stimulate spermatogenesis?

  • Testosterone replacement alone
  • Gonadotropin therapy (hMG and hCG)
  • 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
  • Aromatase inhibitors only

Correct Answer: Gonadotropin therapy (hMG and hCG)

Q31. Which hormonal change is expected with primary testicular failure?

  • Low FSH and LH, low testosterone
  • High FSH and LH, low testosterone
  • High testosterone, low LH
  • Normal gonadotropins, high testosterone

Correct Answer: High FSH and LH, low testosterone

Q32. What is the role of bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands?

  • Produce the bulk of seminal fluid volume
  • Secrete alkaline, mucus-rich pre-ejaculate for lubrication
  • Synthesize testosterone
  • Store sperm prior to ejaculation

Correct Answer: Secrete alkaline, mucus-rich pre-ejaculate for lubrication

Q33. Which pathology is most likely to reduce sperm motility directly?

  • Obstructive epididymal cyst
  • Low seminal fructose
  • Impaired mitochondrial function in sperm midpiece
  • Excessive seminal alkalinity

Correct Answer: Impaired mitochondrial function in sperm midpiece

Q34. Which environmental agent is known to impair male fertility by causing DNA damage in sperm?

  • Vitamin C
  • Heat exposure and smoking
  • Omega-3 fatty acids
  • Folic acid supplementation

Correct Answer: Heat exposure and smoking

Q35. Which diagnostic procedure obtains tissue to evaluate spermatogenesis when azoospermia is present?

  • Testicular biopsy
  • Scrotal ultrasound
  • Vasography
  • Transrectal ultrasound

Correct Answer: Testicular biopsy

Q36. Which hormone is converted from testosterone and is more potent at androgen receptor binding in some tissues?

  • Estradiol
  • Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
  • Androstenedione
  • Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

Q37. Which pharmacologic agent directly stimulates GnRH receptors and is used in prostate cancer therapy initially?

  • Leuprolide (a GnRH agonist)
  • Finasteride (5α-reductase inhibitor)
  • Ketoconazole (antifungal)
  • Flutamide (antiandrogen)

Correct Answer: Leuprolide (a GnRH agonist)

Q38. Which structural component of sperm contains the genetic material?

  • Midpiece
  • Tail
  • Head (nucleus)
  • Neck

Correct Answer: Head (nucleus)

Q39. Which condition results from torsion of the spermatic cord and is a surgical emergency?

  • Orchitis
  • Testicular torsion
  • Varicocele
  • Epididymitis

Correct Answer: Testicular torsion

Q40. Which element in semen is used as a marker of seminal vesicle function?

  • Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
  • Fructose
  • Acid phosphatase
  • Prostaglandins

Correct Answer: Fructose

Q41. Which screening test evaluates for chromosomal causes of male infertility?

  • Hormone assay only
  • Karyotype analysis
  • Semen culture
  • Urine analysis

Correct Answer: Karyotype analysis

Q42. What is the effect of anabolic steroid abuse on endogenous spermatogenesis?

  • Stimulates spermatogenesis
  • No effect
  • Suppresses gonadotropins and reduces spermatogenesis
  • Only increases semen volume

Correct Answer: Suppresses gonadotropins and reduces spermatogenesis

Q43. Which seminal plasma component acts as a coagulating factor that initially forms a gel after ejaculation?

  • Seminogelin
  • Albumin
  • Testosterone
  • Prostaglandin E

Correct Answer: Seminogelin

Q44. What is the main therapeutic aim of assisted reproductive techniques like ICSI for male factor infertility?

  • Bypass ovarian dysfunction
  • Direct injection of a single sperm into an oocyte to overcome severe male factor
  • Stimulate spermatogenesis in testes
  • Remove antibodies from semen

Correct Answer: Direct injection of a single sperm into an oocyte to overcome severe male factor

Q45. Which hormone is primarily responsible for development of secondary sexual characteristics in males during puberty?

  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone
  • Testosterone
  • Cortisol

Correct Answer: Testosterone

Q46. Which inherited defect can cause male pseudohermaphroditism due to inability to produce DHT?

  • Aromatase excess syndrome
  • 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • Androgen insensitivity syndrome

Correct Answer: 5-alpha-reductase deficiency

Q47. Which clinical sign suggests obstructive pathology of the male reproductive tract affecting semen volume?

  • Normal semen volume with low sperm count
  • Low semen volume with absent fructose
  • High semen volume with acidic pH
  • High sperm concentration with low motility

Correct Answer: Low semen volume with absent fructose

Q48. Which laboratory finding supports a diagnosis of retrograde ejaculation?

  • Elevated sperm in post-ejaculatory urine
  • High seminal fructose
  • Low urinary sperm count
  • Increased semen PSA

Correct Answer: Elevated sperm in post-ejaculatory urine

Q49. Which of the following drugs can impair male fertility by causing oxidative stress to sperm?

  • Antioxidant supplements
  • Chemotherapeutic alkylating agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide)
  • Topical emollients
  • Folate supplementation

Correct Answer: Chemotherapeutic alkylating agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide)

Q50. Which endocrine pattern is typical of anabolic steroid-induced hypogonadism after cessation?

  • High LH and FSH with high testosterone
  • Suppressed LH and FSH with low endogenous testosterone
  • Elevated prolactin only
  • Normal gonadotropins with high testosterone

Correct Answer: Suppressed LH and FSH with low endogenous testosterone

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