Female reproductive system MCQs With Answer

Female reproductive system MCQs With Answer for B.Pharm students provides a focused, exam-oriented review of anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, and clinical therapeutics related to female reproduction. This resource covers ovarian and uterine cycles, steroidogenesis, hormone regulation, contraceptives, fertility agents, menstrual disorders, menopause management, and common pathologies with drug implications. Keywords included: Female reproductive system MCQs With Answer, B.Pharm, reproductive physiology, ovarian cycle, hormones, contraception, fertility drugs, and menstrual disorders. Clear explanations and answer-focused practice help pharmacy students link basic science to drug action and patient care. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which cell type in the ovarian follicle primarily produces estrogen via aromatization of androgens?

• Theca interna cells
• Granulosa cells
• Stromal fibroblasts
• Corona radiata cells

Correct Answer: Granulosa cells

Q2. Which hormone surge triggers ovulation in the midcycle?

• Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• Luteinizing hormone (LH)
• Prolactin
• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Correct Answer: Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Q3. Estradiol is primarily synthesized from which precursor in ovarian steroidogenesis?

• Progesterone
• Testosterone
• Cholesterol
• Androstenedione

Correct Answer: Androstenedione

Q4. Which estrogen form predominates during non-pregnant reproductive years?

• Estrone (E1)
• Estradiol (E2)
• Estriol (E3)
• Estetrol (E4)

Correct Answer: Estradiol (E2)

Q5. Progesterone’s main action in the luteal phase is to:

• Stimulate follicle development
• Promote endometrial proliferation
• Maintain secretory endometrium for implantation
• Induce menses

Correct Answer: Maintain secretory endometrium for implantation

Q6. Which drug is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used for estrogen receptor–positive breast cancer and can cause amenorrhea?

• Clomiphene citrate
• Tamoxifen
• Letrozole
• Raloxifene

Correct Answer: Tamoxifen

Q7. Clomiphene citrate induces ovulation by which mechanism?

• Directly stimulating ovarian follicle growth
• Blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus to increase GnRH, LH, and FSH
• Inhibiting aromatase to raise FSH levels
• Mimicking progesterone to stabilize the endometrium

Correct Answer: Blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus to increase GnRH, LH, and FSH

Q8. Which contraceptive method primarily prevents implantation by creating a hostile endometrial environment and causes heavy menstrual bleeding as a common side effect?

• Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)
• Copper IUD
• Combined oral contraceptive pill
• Contraceptive implant

Correct Answer: Copper IUD

Q9. The primary mechanism of combined oral contraceptives (estrogen + progestin) is:

• Inhibition of ovulation via suppression of GnRH, LH, and FSH
• Thickening of cervical mucus only
• Inhibition of sperm motility in the uterus
• Endometrial destruction

Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation via suppression of GnRH, LH, and FSH

Q10. Which emergency contraceptive acts primarily by delaying or inhibiting ovulation and is most effective if taken before ovulation?

• Mifepristone
• Levonorgestrel
• Ulipristal acetate
• Copper IUD insertion

Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate

Q11. Aromatase inhibitors such as letrozole help induce ovulation by:

• Blocking GnRH receptors at the pituitary
• Reducing estrogen synthesis, relieving negative feedback, and increasing FSH
• Directly stimulating granulosa cell proliferation
• Increasing progesterone levels

Correct Answer: Reducing estrogen synthesis, relieving negative feedback, and increasing FSH

Q12. Which hormone measured in serum is the most reliable early marker of pregnancy produced by the syncytiotrophoblast?

• Progesterone
• Estrogen
• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• Prolactin

Correct Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Q13. In the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, GnRH is secreted by the:

• Adenohypophysis
• Granulosa cells
• Hypothalamus
• Theca interna

Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

Q14. Which drug is a progesterone receptor antagonist used for medical termination of pregnancy in combination with a prostaglandin?

• Mifepristone
• Misoprostol alone
• Ulipristal acetate
• Ethinylestradiol

Correct Answer: Mifepristone

Q15. The corpus luteum secretes high levels of which hormone during the luteal phase?

• Estrogen only
• Progesterone
• Cardiolipin
• Cortisol

Correct Answer: Progesterone

Q16. Which lab marker is most useful for assessing ovarian reserve in fertility evaluation?

• Luteinizing hormone (LH)
• Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH)
• Prolactin
• Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Correct Answer: Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH)

Q17. Which condition is best treated with GnRH agonists (e.g., leuprolide) to create a hypoestrogenic state?

• Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) infertility
• Endometriosis
• Vaginal candidiasis
• Uterine prolapse

Correct Answer: Endometriosis

Q18. Prolactin inhibits reproductive function primarily by:

• Stimulating estrogen production
• Suppressing GnRH secretion causing amenorrhea and infertility
• Increasing LH surge frequency
• Enhancing follicular maturation

Correct Answer: Suppressing GnRH secretion causing amenorrhea and infertility

Q19. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) pharmacotherapy for ovulation induction includes:

• Clomiphene citrate and letrozole
• Progestin-only pills only
• GnRH antagonists chronically
• High-dose estrogen therapy

Correct Answer: Clomiphene citrate and letrozole

Q20. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of combined estrogen-progestin therapy?

• Osteoporosis
• Thromboembolism
• Hypotension
• Hyperthyroidism

Correct Answer: Thromboembolism

Q21. The primary site of fertilization in the female reproductive tract is the:

• Uterine cavity
• Ovarian follicle
• Fallopian (uterine) tube, ampulla
• Cervical canal

Correct Answer: Fallopian (uterine) tube, ampulla

Q22. Which infection is most strongly associated with cervical cancer and is vaccine-preventable?

• Chlamydia trachomatis
• Human papillomavirus (HPV)
• Herpes simplex virus
• Treponema pallidum

Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Q23. A rise in basal body temperature after ovulation is most directly due to increased:

• Estrogen
• Progesterone
• Testosterone
• FSH

Correct Answer: Progesterone

Q24. Which analgesic is commonly used to treat primary dysmenorrhea by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis?

• Paracetamol
• Ibuprofen (NSAID)
• Metformin
• Diazepam

Correct Answer: Ibuprofen (NSAID)

Q25. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is used clinically to:

• Suppress ovulation
• Trigger final oocyte maturation and ovulation in assisted reproduction
• Act as a contraceptive
• Decrease testosterone production

Correct Answer: Trigger final oocyte maturation and ovulation in assisted reproduction

Q26. Which tumor marker is most commonly associated with epithelial ovarian cancer?

• CA-125
• Beta-hCG
• AFP (alpha-fetoprotein)
• PSA

Correct Answer: CA-125

Q27. Danazol treats endometriosis by:

• Acting as an androgenic steroid to suppress pituitary gonadotropins and induce hypoestrogenism
• Increasing estrogen production
• Directly destroying endometrial tissue
• Blocking prostaglandin receptors

Correct Answer: Acting as an androgenic steroid to suppress pituitary gonadotropins and induce hypoestrogenism

Q28. Which medication is used as a tocolytic to inhibit preterm labor by calcium channel blockade?

• Nifedipine
• Misoprostol
• Oxytocin
• Methylergometrine

Correct Answer: Nifedipine

Q29. Which condition is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus and often causes chronic pelvic pain and infertility?

• Endometritis
• Endometriosis
• Leiomyoma
• Ovarian torsion

Correct Answer: Endometriosis

Q30. The first-line hormonal therapy for menorrhagia due to uterine fibroids often includes:

• Short-term GnRH agonist therapy to reduce fibroid size
• High-dose estrogen replacement
• Testosterone supplementation
• Thyroid hormone replacement

Correct Answer: Short-term GnRH agonist therapy to reduce fibroid size

Q31. Which cell layer forms the functional endometrium that is shed during menstruation?

• Basal layer (stratum basalis)
• Functional layer (stratum functionalis)
• Myometrium
• Perimetrium

Correct Answer: Functional layer (stratum functionalis)

Q32. Aromatase is an enzyme that converts:

• Progesterone to cortisol
• Androstenedione/testosterone to estrogens
• Cholesterol to pregnenolone
• Estrogen to estriol

Correct Answer: Androstenedione/testosterone to estrogens

Q33. Which medication is used for cervical ripening and induction of labor due to its prostaglandin E1 analog activity?

• Oxytocin
• Misoprostol
• Terbutaline
• Magnesium sulfate

Correct Answer: Misoprostol

Q34. A woman with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and headache should be evaluated for:

• Ovarian hyperstimulation
• Prolactinoma (pituitary adenoma)
• Uterine fibroids
• Vaginal atrophy

Correct Answer: Prolactinoma (pituitary adenoma)

Q35. Which contraceptive implant hormone is commonly used and mainly acts by suppressing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus?

• Levonorgestrel
• Estradiol valerate
• Medroxyprogesterone acetate depot only
• Testosterone

Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel

Q36. Which statement about menopause is correct?

• It is defined by cessation of menses for 3 months
• It is characterized by decreased ovarian estrogen production and increased FSH
• Progesterone levels rise dramatically
• It leads to increased fertility

Correct Answer: It is characterized by decreased ovarian estrogen production and increased FSH

Q37. Which drug class is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity, especially causing neural tube defects and fetal malformations?

• ACE inhibitors
• Beta blockers
• Calcium channel blockers
• H2 blockers

Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors

Q38. In assisted reproductive technology, luteal phase support commonly uses which medication?

• Oral estradiol alone
• Progesterone supplementation
• High-dose FSH
• Metformin

Correct Answer: Progesterone supplementation

Q39. The key distinguishing feature of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is:

• Low androgen levels with regular menses
• Oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries
• Bilateral ovarian torsion
• Endometrial hyperplasia due to low estrogen

Correct Answer: Oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries

Q40. Which medication is used to treat postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions?

• Oxytocin
• Terbutaline
• Nifedipine
• Ulipristal acetate

Correct Answer: Oxytocin

Q41. Cervical screening with a Pap smear primarily detects:

• Endometrial carcinoma
• Cervical epithelial cell dysplasia and precancerous lesions
• Ovarian cysts
• Vaginal microbiota composition

Correct Answer: Cervical epithelial cell dysplasia and precancerous lesions

Q42. Which class of drugs is commonly used to suppress ovarian steroidogenesis in hormone-sensitive breast cancer?

• Aromatase inhibitors
• Prostaglandin analogs
• Beta-lactam antibiotics
• Thrombolytics

Correct Answer: Aromatase inhibitors

Q43. A positive home urine LH test predicts ovulation because it detects:

• FSH surge
• LH surge that precedes ovulation by ~24–36 hours
• Progesterone increase
• Estrogen depletion

Correct Answer: LH surge that precedes ovulation by ~24–36 hours

Q44. Which organism is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) leading to infertility?

• Escherichia coli
• Chlamydia trachomatis
• Candida albicans
• Human papillomavirus

Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

Q45. Which drug is an oxytocin receptor antagonist used to delay preterm labor?

• Atosiban
• Misoprostol
• Ergotamine
• Dinoprostone

Correct Answer: Atosiban

Q46. Which histological change defines secretory phase of the endometrium under progesterone influence?

• Glandular coiling with glycogen-rich secretion
• Complete shedding of functional layer
• Flattened inactive glands
• Necrosis of basal layer

Correct Answer: Glandular coiling with glycogen-rich secretion

Q47. Mifepristone’s mechanism in medical abortion involves:

• Agonism at estrogen receptors
• Antagonism at progesterone receptors leading to decidual separation
• Stimulation of uterine blood flow
• Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

Correct Answer: Antagonism at progesterone receptors leading to decidual separation

Q48. Which vitamin supplementation is critical in early pregnancy to reduce neural tube defect risk?

• Vitamin D
• Folic acid (folate)
• Vitamin B12 only
• Vitamin C

Correct Answer: Folic acid (folate)

Q49. In menopausal hormone therapy, adding a progestin to estrogen in women with an intact uterus is necessary to:

• Enhance estrogen’s bone effects
• Prevent endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma
• Increase libido substantially
• Induce ovulation

Correct Answer: Prevent endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma

Q50. Which screening test is recommended to detect high-risk HPV strains associated with cervical cancer?

• Serum CA-125
• HPV DNA testing (molecular screening)
• Urine culture
• Endometrial biopsy routinely

Correct Answer: HPV DNA testing (molecular screening)

G S Sachin

I am a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. I hold a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research. With a strong academic foundation and practical knowledge, I am committed to providing accurate, easy-to-understand content to support pharmacy students and professionals. My aim is to make complex pharmaceutical concepts accessible and useful for real-world application.

Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com