Introduction
Understanding the etiology of malaria and the Plasmodium life cycle is essential for B.Pharm students preparing for clinical practice, therapeutics, and public health roles. This concise overview highlights key terms: Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale, P. knowlesi, Anopheles vectors, sporozoite, merozoite, hypnozoite, gametocyte, hepatic schizogony, erythrocytic cycle, sporogony, transmission, pathogenesis, relapse, recrudescence, diagnosis, antimalarials, and drug resistance. Emphasis on stage-specific drug targets (chloroquine, artemisinins, primaquine), diagnostics (microscopy, RDTs), vector control, and G6PD considerations supports rational therapy and patient counselling. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.
Q1. Which organisms are the primary etiologic agents of human malaria?
- Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale, and P. knowlesi
- Trypanosoma brucei, Leishmania donovani, Plasmodium falciparum
- Entamoeba histolytica, Plasmodium vivax
- Babesia microti, Toxoplasma gondii
Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale, and P. knowlesi
Q2. What is the infective stage of Plasmodium transmitted by the Anopheles mosquito to humans?
- Merozoite
- Sporozoite
- Gametocyte
- Trophozoite
Correct Answer: Sporozoite
Q3. Which stage of Plasmodium multiplies in human hepatocytes?
- Erythrocytic schizont
- Sporozoite
- Hypnozoite and hepatic schizont
- Gametocyte
Correct Answer: Hypnozoite and hepatic schizont
Q4. Which Plasmodium species form latent hypnozoites capable of causing relapse?
- P. falciparum and P. malariae
- P. vivax and P. ovale
- P. knowlesi and P. falciparum
- P. malariae and P. knowlesi
Correct Answer: P. vivax and P. ovale
Q5. The clinical symptoms of malaria (fever, chills, anemia) are primarily due to which parasite process?
- Hepatic schizogony
- Erythrocytic schizogony and red cell rupture
- Sporogony in mosquito gut
- Gametocyte formation in blood
Correct Answer: Erythrocytic schizogony and red cell rupture
Q6. Which diagnostic method is considered the gold standard for malaria diagnosis?
- Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
- Rapid diagnostic test (RDT) for HRP2
- Microscopic examination of thick and thin blood smears
- Serologic antibody test
Correct Answer: Microscopic examination of thick and thin blood smears
Q7. Which antimalarial drug is specifically used to eradicate hepatic hypnozoites?
- Chloroquine
- Artemisinin
- Primaquine
- Pyrimethamine
Correct Answer: Primaquine
Q8. Artemisinin derivatives primarily act against which stage of Plasmodium?
- Liver hypnozoites only
- Erythrocytic trophozoites and schizonts (asexual blood stages)
- Mosquito-stage sporozoites
- Gametocytes exclusively
Correct Answer: Erythrocytic trophozoites and schizonts (asexual blood stages)
Q9. Which genetic mutation is most associated with chloroquine resistance in P. falciparum?
- Mutations in pfcrt gene (chloroquine resistance transporter)
- Mutations in dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)
- Mutations in kelch13 only
- Mutations in cytochrome b exclusively
Correct Answer: Mutations in pfcrt gene (chloroquine resistance transporter)
Q10. Recrudescence in malaria refers to:
- New infection from an infected mosquito bite
- Recurrence due to survival of blood-stage parasites after inadequate treatment
- Relapse from dormant liver hypnozoites
- Asymptomatic carriage without parasitemia
Correct Answer: Recurrence due to survival of blood-stage parasites after inadequate treatment
Q11. Which Plasmodium species is most likely to cause severe cerebral malaria?
- P. vivax
- P. malariae
- P. falciparum
- P. ovale
Correct Answer: P. falciparum
Q12. Gametocytes are important because they:
- Cause fever spikes in the human host
- Are the asexual replicating form in blood
- Are the sexual stage taken up by mosquitoes to continue transmission
- Are dormant liver forms
Correct Answer: Are the sexual stage taken up by mosquitoes to continue transmission
Q13. Which drug combination is recommended as first-line therapy for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria in many regions?
- Chloroquine monotherapy
- Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
- Primaquine monotherapy
- Pyrimethamine monotherapy
Correct Answer: Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
Q14. What is the main purpose of combining artemisinin with a partner drug in ACTs?
- To increase the half-life only
- To reduce parasite clearance speed
- To prevent or delay resistance and ensure complete parasite clearance
- To target mosquito stages
Correct Answer: To prevent or delay resistance and ensure complete parasite clearance
Q15. Which laboratory test must be considered before prescribing primaquine?
- Hemoglobin electrophoresis
- G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) status
- Blood urea nitrogen only
- Liver function tests exclusively
Correct Answer: G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) status
Q16. Sporogony refers to which part of the Plasmodium life cycle?
- Asexual replication in human red cells
- Sexual reproduction and sporozoite formation in the mosquito
- Liver-stage schizogony
- Relapse from hypnozoites
Correct Answer: Sexual reproduction and sporozoite formation in the mosquito
Q17. Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) commonly detect which malaria antigen?
- Hemoglobin A
- Histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP2) or parasite lactate dehydrogenase (pLDH)
- CRP (C-reactive protein)
- White blood cell antigens
Correct Answer: Histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP2) or parasite lactate dehydrogenase (pLDH)
Q18. Which Plasmodium species has the longest erythrocytic cycle (72 hours) often producing quartan fever?
- P. falciparum
- P. vivax
- P. malariae
- P. ovale
Correct Answer: P. malariae
Q19. The “ring form” seen on a blood smear corresponds to which parasite stage?
- Merozoite inside the mosquito
- Early trophozoite (ring) stage in erythrocyte
- Gametocyte in the mosquito gut
- Hepatic schizont
Correct Answer: Early trophozoite (ring) stage in erythrocyte
Q20. Which mechanism best describes chloroquine’s antimalarial action?
- Inhibition of folate synthesis
- Interference with heme detoxification in parasite food vacuole
- Inhibition of plasmodial protein synthesis at ribosome
- Blockade of parasite mitochondrial electron transport exclusively
Correct Answer: Interference with heme detoxification in parasite food vacuole
Q21. Which factor most increases the risk of severe malaria in a patient?
- Partial immunity from repeated exposure
- First infection or non-immune status
- Use of prophylactic antimalarials
- Asymptomatic low parasitemia
Correct Answer: First infection or non-immune status
Q22. Which mosquito genus is the primary vector for human malaria?
- Aedes
- Culex
- Anopheles
- Ixodes
Correct Answer: Anopheles
Q23. Which antimalarial targets the plasmodial folate pathway?
- Artemisinin
- Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine (SP)
- Chloroquine
- Mefloquine
Correct Answer: Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine (SP)
Q24. In malaria epidemiology, the entomological inoculation rate (EIR) measures:
- Number of parasites per microliter of blood
- Frequency of mosquito bites without infection
- Number of infectious bites per person per unit time
- Rate of gametocyte production in humans
Correct Answer: Number of infectious bites per person per unit time
Q25. Which clinical feature helps differentiate severe falciparum malaria from uncomplicated malaria?
- Low-grade fever only
- Hyperparasitemia, cerebral involvement, severe anemia or organ failure
- Mild headache without systemic signs
- Isolated splenomegaly only
Correct Answer: Hyperparasitemia, cerebral involvement, severe anemia or organ failure
Q26. Which molecular marker is currently associated with artemisinin partial resistance in P. falciparum?
- Mutations in kelch13 (K13) propeller domain
- Mutations in pfmdr1 only
- Mutations in pfcrt solely
- Human hemoglobin mutations
Correct Answer: Mutations in kelch13 (K13) propeller domain
Q27. Which preventive measure reduces malaria transmission at community level?
- Use of long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs) and indoor residual spraying
- Universal use of antibiotics
- Mass blood transfusions
- Exclusive use of antipyretics
Correct Answer: Use of long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs) and indoor residual spraying
Q28. In pregnant women, which malaria species and timing are particularly dangerous for fetal outcomes?
- P. malariae in late pregnancy only
- P. falciparum in pregnancy, associated with placental sequestration and adverse outcomes
- P. vivax has no impact on pregnancy
- P. ovale only in first trimester
Correct Answer: P. falciparum in pregnancy, associated with placental sequestration and adverse outcomes
Q29. Which blood finding is characteristic of malaria and useful in microscopy?
- Ring forms, double chromatin dots, and Schüffner’s stippling in specific species
- Basophilic stippling in all cases
- Howell-Jolly bodies exclusively
- Target cells form only in malaria
Correct Answer: Ring forms, double chromatin dots, and Schüffner’s stippling in specific species
Q30. For chemoprophylaxis in travelers to chloroquine-resistant areas, which regimen is commonly recommended?
- Chloroquine weekly
- Doxycycline or atovaquone-proguanil or mefloquine depending on tolerance and resistance patterns
- Primaquine as sole prophylaxis for all travelers
- High-dose sulfadoxine alone
Correct Answer: Doxycycline or atovaquone-proguanil or mefloquine depending on tolerance and resistance patterns
I am a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. I hold a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research. With a strong academic foundation and practical knowledge, I am committed to providing accurate, easy-to-understand content to support pharmacy students and professionals. My aim is to make complex pharmaceutical concepts accessible and useful for real-world application.
Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com